EXAMINATION TESTS

on "Internal Diseases 1 (5th semester)" for the 3rd year students of the Medical Faculty of Osh State University in the specialty "Medicine" on 5  SEMESTER 2015-2016 ACADEMIC YEAR

 

  1. Paroxysmal cough with a single large number of purulent sputum ("full mouth") occurs in:
  2. a) pneumonia
  3. b) pulmonary tuberculosis
  4. c) at an attack of asthma
  5. d) in stage II syndrome cavity formation in the lung
  6. Bronchial asthma attack is characterized by sputum:
  7. a) lean, bad expectorant and transparent
  8. b) mucopurulent yellow-green from
  9. c) purulent sputum green
  10. d) bloody sputum
  11. Pneumonia is characterized by sputum:
  12. a) lean, bad expectorant and transparent
  13. b) mucopurulent yellow-green
  14. c) purulent sputum green
  15. d) bloody sputum
  16. Stage II syndrome form a cavity in the lung sputum characteristic:
  17. a) lean, bad expectorant and transparent
  18. b) mucopurulent yellow-green
  19. c) purulent sputum green
  20. d) bloody sputum
  21. Bronchiectasis sputum characteristic:
  22. a) lean, bad expectorant and transparent
  23. b) mucopurulent yellow-green
  24. c) mucous expectoration
  25. d) purulent sputum green
  26. Purulent sputum discharge simultaneously "mouth full" on a large volume, characteristic for:
  27. a) I stage lung abscess
  28. b) II stage lung abscess
  29. c) pneumonia
  30. d) asthma
  31. e) chronic bronchitis
  32. Complaints patients cough with mucopurulent sputum in combination with fever and pain in the chest is typical for:
  33. a) lung cancer
  34. b) acute bronchitis
  35. c) chronic bronchitis
  36. d) pneumonia
  37. e) asthma
  38. Purulent sputum green, detachable throughout the day (and more often in the morning) for many months in the amount of 1-2 liters per day is observed when:
  39. a) pneumonia
  40. b) acute bronchitis
  41. c) II stage lung abscess
  42. d) bronchiectasis
  43. Cough with "rusty" sputum is characteristic for:
  44. a) pneumonia
  45. b) acute bronchitis
  46. c) II stage lung abscess
  47. d) bronchiectasis
  48. The appearance in patients with pneumonia, "rusty" sputum - a variant of:
  49. a) mucous sputum
  50. b) muco-purulent sputum
  51. c) purulent sputum
  52. d) putrid sputum
  53. e) hemoptysis
  54. The patient has pneumonia occurrence of chest pain indicative of defeat:
  55. a) the alveoli
  56. b) interstitial tissue
  57. c) pleura
  58. d) vessels
  59. Pain in the chest, decreasing in position on the patient side, observed in:
  60. a) asthma
  61. b) bronchitis
  62. c) dry pleurisy
  63. d) bronchiectasis
  64. e) spontaneous pneumothorax
  65. Pleural pain increases:
  66. a) in position on the healthy side
  67. b) in position on the patient side
  68. c) for compression of the thorax
  69. d) during exhalation
  70. Pleural pain decreases:
  71. a) with a deep breath
  72. b) when you cough
  73. c) in position on the healthy side
  74. d) in position on the patient side
  75. e) during exhalation
  76. Expiratory dyspnea is typical for:
  77. a) dry pleurisy
  78. b) exudative pleurisy
  79. c) pulmonary edema
  80. d) asthma
  81. e) acute bronchitis
  82. A dyspnea expiratory character is a specific sign of:
  83. a) pulmonary edema
  84. b) asthma
  85. c) pneumonia
  86. d) bronchitis
  87. e) pleurisy
  88. The patient forced position is marked on the patient side, resulting in a reduction of pain in the chest. What do you think ?:
  89. a) asthma
  90. b) acute and chronic bronchitis
  91. c) dry pleurisy
  92. d) pleural effusion
  93. The chest with its expansion, increasing intercostal spaces, bulging supraclavicular fossa and the participation of auxiliary respiratory muscles is called:
  94. a) paralytic
  95. b) emphysematous
  96. c) rachitic
  97. d) funnel
  98. e) the navicular
  99. Barrel, extended (emphysematous) chest syndrome occurs when:
  100. a) the seal of the lung tissue
  101. b) forming a cavity in the lung
  102. c) increased airiness of the lungs
  103. d) respiratory insufficiency
  104. e) accumulation of air in the pleural cavity
  105. Emphysematous chest is observed in:
  106. a) pneumonia
  107. b) acute respiratory diseases
  108. c) the long-term course of bronchial asthma
  109. d) lung abscess
  110. e) pneumothorax
  111. On palpation of the chest of the patient with the syndrome of consolidation of pulmonary tissue voice trembling is:
  112. a) strengthened
  113. b) impaired
  114. c) is not changed
  115. d) greatly reduced
  116. On palpation of the chest of the patient with the syndrome formation of a cavity in a light voice trembling:
  117. a) strengthened
  118. b) impaired
  119. c) is not changed
  120. d) greatly reduced
  121. On palpation of the chest in a patient with an accumulation of fluid in the pleural cavity voice trembling:
  122. a) strengthened
  123. b) impaired
  124. c) is not changed
  125. d) increased sharply
  126. On palpation of the chest of the patient with the accumulation of air in the pleural cavity voice trembling:
  127. a) strengthened
  128. b) impaired
  129. c) is not changed
  130. d) increased sharply
  131. Strengthening the voice jitter characteristic of the syndrome:
  132. a) consolidation of pulmonary tissue seal the lung tissue
  133. b) bronchial obstruction
  134. c) the accumulation of fluid in the pleural cavity
  135. d) accumulation of air in the pleural cavity
  136. The weakening of the voice tremor characteristic of the syndrome:
  137. a) consolidation of pulmonary tissue
  138. b) forming a cavity in the lung
  139. c) bronchial obstruction
  140. d) fluid accumulation in the pleural cavity
  141. The patient found the voice amplification jitter. Which one is detected in this patient symptoms to distinguish the syndrome of cavity formation in the lung syndrome seal lung tissue:
  142. a) fever
  143. b) expectoration
  144. c) chest pain
  145. d) discharge of purulent sputum mouth full
  146. e) shortness of breath
  147. In the light percussion dull sound is detected at a syndrome:
  148. a) the formation of a cavity in the lung
  149. b) the accumulation of fluid in the pleural cavity
  150. c) accumulation of air or gas in the pleural cavity
  151. d) emphysema
  152. Syndrome of consolidation of pulmonary tissue characterized by the following data percussion:
  153. a) tympanic sound
  154. b) box sound
  155. c) a metallic sound
  156. d) dullness
  157. Syndrome form a cavity in the lung characterized by the following data percussion:
  158. a) tympanic sound
  159. b) box sound
  160. c) a dull sound
  161. d) dullness
  162. Syndrome accumulation of fluid in the pleural cavity characterized by the following data percussion:
  163. a) tympanic sound
  164. b) box sound
  165. c) dull sound
  166. d) clear lung
  167. Syndrome of increased airiness of the lung tissue characterized by the following data percussion:
  168. a) tympanic sound
  169. b) box sound
  170. c) a dull sound
  171. d) dullness
  172. Tympanic sound on percussion of the lungs characteristic of the syndrome:
  173. a) the seal of the lung tissue
  174. b) the accumulation of fluid in the pleural cavity
  175. c) obstructive atelectasis
  176. d) bronchial obstruction
  177. e) forming a cavity in the lung
  178. Box sound when percussion lung characteristic of the syndrome:
  179. a) syndrome of consolidation of pulmonary tissue
  180. b) increased airiness of the lungs
  181. c) accumulation of air in the pleural cavity
  182. d) fluid accumulation in the pleural cavity
  183. e) forming a cavity in the lung
  184. Box sound when percussion lung occurs when:
  185. a) a dry pleurisy
  186. b) pneumonia
  187. c) emphysema
  188. d) acute bronchitis
  189. Normally, when the relative light percussion cage front in the IV intercostal space on the right is listened:
  190. a) tympanic sound
  191. b) a dull sound
  192. c) box sound
  193. d) a clear lung sounds
  194. e) metal
  195. Normally, on the front right chest IV to VI intercostal space during the percussion is determined by:
  196. a) tympanic sound
  197. b) a dull sound
  198. c) box sound
  199. d) a clear lung sounds
  200. e) metal
  201. Normally, on the front left chest IV to VI intercostal space during the percussion is determined by:
  202. a) tympanic sound
  203. b) a dull sound
  204. c) box sound
  205. d) a clear lung sounds; e) metal
  206. Normally, during auscultation, vesicular breathing auscultated on:
  207. a) the larynx
  208. b) the trachea
  209. c) the area of location of large bronchi
  210. d) portions of lung tissue with a large number of alveoli
  211. Normally, during auscultation, bronchial breathing auscultated on:
  212. a) the larynx, the trachea and the large bronchi area location
  213. b) regions of the lung tissue with a large number of alveoli
  214. c) area of the pleura
  215. d) the heart
  216. On auscultation auscultated vesicular breathing during:
  217. a) inhalation
  218. b) an exhalation
  219. c) the beginning of inhalation and exhalation
  220. d) inhalation and exhalation
  221. On auscultation bronchial breathing auscultated during:
  222. a) inhalation
  223. b) an exhalation
  224. c) the beginning of inhalation and exhalation
  225. d) inhalation and exhalation
  226. Hard breathing - are:
  227. a) the weakening of vesicular breathing
  228. b) strengthening vesicular breathing
  229. c) the weakening of the bronchial respiration
  230. d) enhancement of bronchial breathing
  231. The reason for the gain vesicular (hard) is a respiratory syndrome:
  232. a) pulmonary emphysema
  233. b) bronchial obstruction
  234. c) the accumulation of fluid in the pleural cavity
  235. d) fluid accumulation in the pleural cavity
  236. Pathological bronchial breathing - a bronchial breathing on auscultation:
  237. a) the larynx
  238. b) the trachea
  239. c) the area of location of large bronchi
  240. d) portions of lung tissue with a large number of alveoli
  241. Pathological bronchial breathing syndrome occurs when:
  242. a) bronchial obstruction
  243. b) syndrome of massive consolidation of pulmonary tissue
  244. c) increased airiness lung tissue
  245. d) fluid accumulation in the pleural cavity
  246. e) pneumothorax
  247. Amforic breath occurs when:
  248. a) II phase syndrome form a cavity in the lung
  249. b) step I syndrome cavity formation in the lung
  250. c) increased airiness syndrome lung tissue
  251. d) syndrome fluid in the pleural cavity
  252. e) syndrome pneumothorax
  253. Dry crackles are heard in the syndrome:
  254. a) bronchial obstruction
  255. b) consolidation of pulmonary tissue
  256. c) the accumulation of fluid in the pleural cavity
  257. d) increased airiness of the lungs
  258. e) bronchiectasis
  259. Crackles are heard:
  260. a) in the inspiratory phase
  261. b) in the expiration phase
  262. c) at the height of inspiration
  263. d) during inspiration and exhalation
  264. Crackles after coughing:
  265. a) strengthened
  266. b) disappear
  267. c) are not changed
  268. d) often disappear, sometimes worse
  269. Sonorous finely wheezing observed in:
  270. a) syndrome of consolidation of pulmonary tissue
  271. b) a syndrome of accumulation of fluid in the pleural cavity
  272. c) bronchiectasis  syndrome
  273. d) step II syndrome cavity formation in the lung
  274. Sonorous  large- and medium bubbling rale determined when:
  275. a) syndrome of consolidation of pulmonary tissue
  276. b) step I syndrome cavity formation in the lung
  277. c) syndrome stage II cavity formation in the lung
  278. d) syndrome fluid in the pleural cavity
  279. In any phase of respiration is listened crackling:
  280. a) inhalation
  281. b) an exhalation
  282. c) inhalation and exhalation
  283. d) at a height of exhalation
  284. Crepitus after coughing:
  285. a) enhanced
  286. b) disappears
  287. c) does not change
  288. d) often disappears rarely increases
  289. Sonorous crackling observed in syndrome:
  290. a) bronchial obstruction
  291. b) consolidation of pulmonary tissue
  292. c) the accumulation of fluid in the pleural cavity
  293. d) increased airiness of the lungs
  294. e) bronchiectasis
  295. Crepitus is a specific feature:
  296. a) acute bronchitis
  297. b) lung cancer
  298. c) exudative pleurisy
  299. d) of dry pleurisy
  300. e) pneumonia
  301. Pleural rub is listened when:
  302. a) inhalation
  303. b) an exhalation
  304. c) breath
  305. d) inhalation and exhalation
  306. e) for adjustment of inhalation
  307. Pleural rub is a characteristic feature:
  308. a) acute bronchitis
  309. b) lung cancer
  310. c) exudative pleurisy
  311. d) dry pleurisy
  312. e) pneumonia
  313. Bloody sputum in the form of "rusty" sputum is characteristic for:
  314. a) acute and chronic bronchitis
  315. b) pneumonia
  316. c) lung abscess and gangrene
  317. d) tuberculosis of the lung
  318. e) for lung cancer
  319. Detection of sputum spirals of Kurshman is a characteristic sign of:
  320. a) asthma
  321. b) inflammatory and suppurative lung disease
  322. c) lung cancer
  323. d) pulmonary tuberculosis
  324. Detection of sputum large number of white blood cells is a characteristic feature of:
  325. a) asthma
  326. b) inflammatory and suppurative lung disease
  327. c) lung cancer
  328. d) pulmonary tuberculosis
  329. The discovery of a large number of sputum eosinophils is a characteristic feature of:
  330. a) asthma
  331. b) inflammatory and suppurative lung disease
  332. c) lung cancer
  333. d) pulmonary tuberculosis
  334. Detection of sputum Charcot-Leyden crystals is a characteristic feature of:
  335. a) asthma
  336. b) inflammatory and suppurative lung disease
  337. c) lung cancer
  338. d) pulmonary tuberculosis
  339. Detection of atypical cells in sputum is a characteristic feature of:
  340. a) asthma
  341. b) inflammatory and suppurative lung disease
  342. c) lung cancer
  343. d) of pulmonary tuberculosis
  344. e) pneumonia
  345. Detection of the amount of pathogenic organisms in sputum confirmed pneumonia etiology:
  346. a) greater than 10 to 1, 000 ml
  347. b) 20 to 1 000 ml
  348. c) 50 to 1 000 ml
  349. d) more than 100 000 per 1 ml
  350. e) 1 to 1000 ml
  351. For the type of obstructive disorders of respiratory function is characterized by:
  352. a) a decrease in lung capacity
  353. b) forced expiratory volume in the norm
  354. c) an increase in forced expiratory volume
  355. d) reduction in forced expiratory volume
  356. e) increase in lung capacity
  357. Restrictive disorders of respiratory function is characterized by:
  358. a) a decrease in lung capacity
  359. b) forced expiratory volume in the norm
  360. c) an increase in forced expiratory volume
  361. d) reduction in forced expiratory volume
  362. e) increase in lung capacity
  363. Which of the respiratory function data indicates syndrome of increased airiness of light:
  364. a) an increase in forced expiratory volume
  365. b) an increase in forced inspiration
  366. c) decrease in expiratory flow rate
  367. d) an increase in residual volume
  368. e) reducing the residual volume
  369. The syndrome is caused by compression of the lung tissue filling the alveoli:
  370. a) the inflammatory fluid, blood or tumor tissue
  371. b) increase the amount of air
  372. c) an increased number of gases
  373. d) a foreign body
  374. Syndrome of consolidation of pulmonary tissue appearance of chest pain suggests involvement in the pathological process:
  375. a) the ribs
  376. b) intercostal nerves
  377. c) heart
  378. d) of the pleura
  379. e) pulmonary vessels
  380. Syndrome of consolidation of pulmonary tissue during palpation of the chest voice trembling:
  381. a) strengthened
  382. b) impaired
  383. c) drastically weakened
  384. d) is not determined
  385. Syndrome of consolidation of pulmonary tissue in the lungs percussion is determined by:
  386. a) the blunting of pulmonary sound
  387. b) normal lung sounds
  388. c) tympanitis
  389. d) a metallic sound
  390. e) box sound
  391. Syndrome of consolidation of pulmonary tissue palpation and percussion of the lung observed:
  392. a) strengthening the voice jitter and blunting of pulmonary sound
  393. b) the weakening of the voice jitter and blunting of pulmonary sound
  394. c) strengthening the voice jitter and tympanitis
  395. d) the weakening of the voice jitter and tympanitis
  396. Strengthening the voice jitter and percussion blunting of pulmonary sound characteristic of the syndrome:
  397. a) syndrome of consolidation of pulmonary tissue
  398. b) forming a cavity in the lung
  399. c) the accumulation of fluid in the pleural cavity
  400. d) accumulation of air in the pleural cavity
  401. Syndrome of consolidation of pulmonary tissue when auscultation is defined by:
  402. a) strengthening vesicular breathing (breathing hard)
  403. b) the weakening of vesicular breathing
  404. c) the absence of vesicular breath
  405. d) amforic breath
  406. The syndrome of massive consolidation of pulmonary tissue when auscultation is defined by:
  407. a) strengthening vesicular breathing (breathing hard)
  408. b) the weakening of vesicular breathing
  409. c) abnormal bronchial breathing
  410. d) amforic breath
  411. Specific symptom of syndrome of consolidation pulmonary tissue on lung auscultation is:
  412. a) crepitus
  413. b) rigid vesicular breathing
  414. c) dry wheezing
  415. d) wet wheezing
  416. e) pleural rub
  417. The main feature of X-RAY (radiological) syndrome of consolidation of pulmonary tissue is:
  418. a) a decrease in transparency (shading) of a share or segment
  419. b) a picture of atelectasis
  420. c) increased transparency (transparency), or the proportion of the segment
  421. d) "amputation of the bronchial tubes"
  422. e) increased transparency in the lungs
  423. Syndrome of consolidation of pulmonary tissue is characteristic for:
  424. a) pneumonia
  425. b) chronic bronchitis
  426. c) II stage lung abscess
  427. d) bronchiectasis
  428. e) asthma
  429. I stage of syndrome of cavity formation in the lung - a cavity:
  430. a) communicating with the bronchi
  431. b) free from pus
  432. c) containing air
  433. d) does not communicate with the bronchi and filled with pus
  434. II stage of the syndrome of cavity formation in the lung - a cavity:
  435. a) communicating with the bronchus and free of pus
  436. b) does not communicate with a bronchus
  437. c) filled with pus
  438. d) filled with exudate
  439. Phase II syndrome of cavity formation in the lung characterized by discharge of purulent sputum "full mouth":
  440. a) a one-time (single)
  441. b) repeatedly for one day
  442. c) repeated over many months or years
  443. d) repeatedly during the day since childhood
  444. At stage II syndrome of cavity formation in the lung during palpation of the chest voice trembling:
  445. a) strengthened
  446. b) impaired
  447. c) is not defined
  448. d) all answers are correct
  449. Phase II syndrome presence of cavities in the lung percussion characterized by:
  450. a) tympanic sound
  451. b) box sound
  452. c) a dull sound
  453. d) dullness
  454. At stage II syndrome of cavity formation in the lung during palpation and percussion of the chest are determined:
  455. a) strengthening the voice jitter and dull sound
  456. b) the weakening of the voice jitter and dull sound
  457. c) the weakening of the voice jitter and tympanitis
  458. d) strengthening the voice jitter and tympanitis
  459. Strengthening the voice jitter and tympanic percussion sound characteristic for:
  460. a) syndrome of consolidation of pulmonary tissue
  461. b) a syndrome of increased airiness of the lungs
  462. c) syndrome accumulation of air in the pleural cavity
  463. d) syndrome fluid accumulation in the pleural cavity
  464. e) step II syndrome cavity formation in the lung
  465. At stage II syndrome of cavity formation in the lung during auscultation revealed:
  466. a) the weakening of vesicular breathing
  467. b) hard breathing
  468. c) amforic breath
  469. d) unmodified vesicular breathing
  470. Phase II syndrome of cavity formation in the lung auscultation is characterized by:
  471. a) dry wheezing
  472. b) wet finely wheezing
  473. c) wet medium and large bubbling rale
  474. d) crepitus
  475. e) pleural rub
  476. In stage II syndrome of cavity formation in the lung during lung auscultation revealed crackles:
  477. a) finely
  478. b) only medium bubbling rale
  479. c) only large bubbling rale
  480. d) medium and large bubbling rale
  481. Phase II syndrome of cavity formation in the lung is characterized by a combination of the following symptoms:
  482. a) a dull sound and abnormal bronchial breathing
  483. b) stiff vesicular breathing and pleural rub
  484. c) the weakening of vesicular breathing and dull sound
  485. d) tympanic sound and amforic breath
  486. What syndrome is characterized by a combination of bloat and wet large- and medium bubbling rale:
  487. a) syndrome of consolidation of pulmonary tissue
  488. b) syndrome of massive consolidation of pulmonary tissue
  489. c) II stage of syndrome cavity formation in the lung
  490. d) bronchial obstruction syndrome
  491. The syndrome is marked bronchiectasis purulent sputum "full mouth":
  492. a) single
  493. b) repeatedly for one hour
  494. c) repeatedly for one day
  495. d) repeated over many months or years
  496. The main clinical manifestation of the syndrome is bronchiectasis:
  497. a) purulent sputum "full mouth" many times
  498. b) a dry cough
  499. c) dyspnea and expiratory astma
  500. d) purulent sputum "full mouth " single
  501. Syndrome of bronchiectasis during auscultation revealed:
  502. a) crepitus
  503. b) dry wheezing
  504. c) pleural rub
  505. d) finely crackles
  506. e) medium- and medium and large bubbling ralecrackles
  507. Cough with purulent sputum for many years and moist medium and large bubbling rale in auscultation and is easily observed in the syndrome:
  508. a) bronchial obstruction
  509. b) bronchiectasis
  510. c) sealing lung tissue
  511. d) emphysema
  512. e) forming a cavity in the lung
  513. The syndrome of bronchial obstruction during an attack expiratory choking notes the following position of the patient:
  514. a) on the patient side
  515. b) on the healthy side
  516. c) orthopnea
  517. d) lying on his stomach
  518. e) lying on his back
  519. The syndrome of bronchial obstruction during an attack expiratory choking note the following color:
  520. a) acrocyanosis
  521. b) diffuse cyanosis
  522. c) "latte"
  523. d) cherry (blooded)
  524. e) jaundiced
  525. Syndrome of bronchial obstruction during auscultation is characterized by:
  526. a) the weakening of vesicular breathing
  527. b) strengthening vesicular breathing (breathing hard)
  528. c) bronchial breathing
  529. d) the absence of vesicular breath
  530. e) the normal vesicular breathing
  531. A typical auscultatory sign of bronchial obstruction syndrome are:
  532. a) wet finely wheezing
  533. b) crepitus
  534. c) dry whistling and buzzing rattles
  535. d) pleural rub
  536. e) wet medium and large bubbling rale
  537. Syndrome of bronchial obstruction during auscultation is characterized by the following types of wheeze:
  538. a) wet finely wheezing
  539. b) moist medium bubbling rale
  540. c) wet large bubbling rale
  541. d) dry whistling and buzzing rattles
  542. The syndrome of bronchial obstruction during auscultation is characterized by:
  543. a) the weakening of vesicular breathing and wet wheezing
  544. b) amforic breathe and wet wheezing
  545. c) hard breathing and dry wheezing
  546. d) hard breathing and crackling
  547. Dry wheezing over the entire surface of the lungs characteristic of the syndrome:
  548. a) increased airiness of the lungs
  549. b) the accumulation of fluid in the pleural cavity
  550. c) bronchial obstruction
  551. d) sealing lung tissue
  552. e) forming a cavity in the lung
  553. The hard and dry breath wheezing over the entire surface of the lungs observed in syndrome:
  554. a) the consolidation of the pulmonary tissue
  555. b) the accumulation of fluid in the pleural cavity
  556. c) increased airiness of the lungs
  557. d) bronchial obstruction
  558. e) forming a cavity in the lung
  559. For bronchial obstruction syndrome during the study of respiratory function is characterized by:
  560. a) a decrease in lung capacity
  561. b) forced expiratory volume in the norm
  562. c) an increase in forced expiratory volume
  563. d) reduction in forced expiratory volume
  564. e) increase in lung capacity
  565. The decline in forced expiratory volume in the study of respiratory function characteristic of the syndrome:
  566. a) increased airiness of the lungs
  567. b) the accumulation of fluid in the pleural cavity
  568. c) bronchial obstruction
  569. d) the consolidation of pulmonary tissue
  570. e) the presence in the lung cavity
  571. Stiff and dry breath wheezing during auscultation and declines in forced expiratory volume in the study of respiratory function observed in the syndrome:
  572. a) bronchial obstruction
  573. b) the accumulation of fluid in the pleural cavity
  574. c) increased airiness of the lungs
  575. d) conolidation of pulmonary tissue
  576. e) the presence in the lung cavity
  577. Syndrome of bronchial obstruction is a particular feature of:
  578. a) pneumonia
  579. b) asthma and chronic obstructive bronchitis
  580. c) bronchiectasis
  581. d) cancer and pulmonary tuberculosis
  582. Syndrome emphysema cause persistent lung expansion is:
  583. a) pulmonary fibrosis
  584. b) an inflammation of the alveoli
  585. c) the destruction of the lung tissue
  586. d) hyperextension of the alveoli due to loss of elasticity
  587. The main clinical manifestation of the syndrome of emphysema is:
  588. a) attack the inspiration of suffocation
  589. b) attack expiratory breathlessness
  590. c) inspiratory dyspnea permanent nature
  591. d) expiratory dyspnea permanent nature
  592. e) cough with purulent sputum
  593. Syndrome emphysema voice trembling:
  594. a) efforts from both sides
  595. b) strengthened on the one hand
  596. c) weakened from both sides
  597. d) weakened on one side
  598. Syndrome emphysema during light percussion found:
  599. a) a dull sound
  600. b) blunting of pulmonary sound
  601. c) tympanitis
  602. d) box sound
  603. e) normal lung sounds
  604. Syndrome emphysema during auscultation revealed:
  605. a) strengthening vesicular breathing on both sides
  606. b) strengthening vesicular breathing on one side
  607. c) the weakening of vesicular breathing on both sides
  608. d) the weakening of vesicular breathing on one side
  609. The syndrome of emphysema on chest X-RAY (radiograph) indicated the location of the ribs:
  610. a) vertical
  611. b) sloping downward
  612. c) oblique upward
  613. d) horizontal
  614. Syndrome of accumulation of fluid in the pleural cavity is characterized by:
  615. a) shortness of breath and dyspnea expiratory character
  616. b) dyspnea and inspiratory gasp nature
  617. c) choking and shortness of mixed character
  618. d) cough with phlegm
  619. Syndrome accumulation of fluid in the pleural cavity during the inspection characteristic:
  620. a) flattening and expansion of intercostal spaces
  621. b) bulging intercostal spaces
  622. c) spadenie intercostal spaces
  623. d) the disappearance of intercostal spaces
  624. The syndrome of accumulation of fluid in the pleural cavity during palpation of the chest voice trembling:
  625. a) strengthened
  626. b) normal
  627. c) dramatically reduced or absent
  628. d) increased sharply
  629. The syndrome of accumulation of fluid in the pleural cavity during percussion of the chest is determined by:
  630. a) clear lung sounds
  631. b) dull sound
  632. c) tympanitis
  633. d) "noise cracked pot"
  634. e) box sound
  635. During palpation and percussion of the chest detection dramatically weakened voice trembling until his absence and blunt sound characteristic of the syndrome:
  636. a) the seal of the lung tissue
  637. b) forming a cavity in the lung
  638. c) the accumulation of fluid in the pleural cavity
  639. d) accumulation of air in the pleural cavity
  640. e) bronchial obstruction
  641. The syndrome of accumulation of fluid in the pleural cavity during auscultation is defined by:
  642. a) the normal vesicular breathing
  643. b) pathological bronchial breath
  644. c) a weakening of vesicular breathing or his absence
  645. d) pleural rub; e) hard breathing
  646. The syndrome of accumulation of fluid in the pleural cavity during palpation and auscultation of the lungs is determined by:
  647. a) normal voice trembling and vesicular breathing
  648. b) normal voice trembling and hard breathing
  649. c) weakened voice trembling and vesicular breathing or their absence
  650. d) pleural rub
  651. The syndrome of accumulation of fluid in the pleural cavity includes the following percussion and auscultation symptoms:
  652. a) a dull sound and the absence of vesicular breath
  653. b) tympanic sound and amforic breathing
  654. c) a dull sound and bronchial breathing
  655. d) lung sounds and hard breathing
  656. e) sound and pulmonary pleural rub
  657. The syndrome of accumulation of fluid in the pleural cavity on chest radiograph indicated:
  658. a) the cavity with a horizontal fluid level
  659. b) increase the transparency of the lungs
  660. c) intense homogeneous light shade
  661. d) illumination pulmonary field
  662. For exudative pleurisy is the most characteristic:
  663. a) productive cough
  664. b) shortness of breath when walking
  665. c) "rusty sputum"
  666. d) pleural rub
  667. e) the lack of breathing on auscultation and a dull sound on percussion
  668. Syndrome of pneumothorax most characteristic feature is:
  669. a) periodic attacks of breathlessness and suffocation
  670. b) slowly over many months developing breathlessness and suffocation
  671. c) suddenly developed shortness of breath, turning into asthma
  672. d) cough with expectoration "mouth full."
  673. Syndrome of pneumothorax during the inspection characteristic:
  674. a) flattening of intercostal spaces
  675. b) bulging intercostal spaces
  676. c) expansion of intercostal spaces
  677. d) the disappearance of intercostal spaces
  678. Syndrome of pneumothorax during palpation of the chest voice trembling:
  679. a) normal
  680. b) sharply weakened until its absence
  681. c) strengthened
  682. d) increased sharply
  683. Syndrome of pneumothorax during light percussion is determined by:
  684. a) the blunting of pulmonary sound
  685. b) a dull sound
  686. c) box sound
  687. d) tympanic sound
  688. e) "noise cracked pot."
  689. Syndrome of pneumothorax during palpation and percussion of the lung characterized by:
  690. a) a weakening voice jitter and blunting of pulmonary sound
  691. b) the weakening of the voice jitter and dull sound
  692. c) the weakening of the voice jitter and box sound
  693. d) a sharp weakening of the voice jitter and tympanic sound
  694. e) strengthening the voice jitter and blunting of pulmonary sound
  695. The sharp weakening of the voice jitter and tympanic sound during palpation and percussion of the lung observed in syndrome:
  696. a) the consolidation of pulmonary lung tissue
  697. b) forming a cavity in the lung
  698. c) the accumulation of fluid in the pleural cavity
  699. d) accumulation of air in the pleural cavity
  700. e) bronchial obstruction
  701. Syndrome of pneumothorax during auscultation is defined by:
  702. a) vesicular breathing
  703. b) hard breathing
  704. c) abnormal bronchial breathing
  705. d) drastically weakened vesicular breathing until his absence
  706. e) pleural rub
  707. Syndrome of pneumothorax during percussion and auscultation of the lungs characterized by a combination of the following symptoms:
  708. a) bloat and amforic breathing
  709. b) dull sound and bronchial breathing
  710. c) bloat, and a sharp increase in vesicular breathing
  711. d) of bloat and sharply weakened vesicular breathing
  712. Syndrome of pneumothorax during palpation and auscultation of the lungs characterized by the following combination syptoms:
  713. a) strengthening the voice jitter and amforic breathing
  714. b) strengthening the voice jitter and vesicular breathing
  715. c) a weakening of the voice tremor and vesicular breathing
  716. d) the weakening of voice tremor and pleural rub
  717. The syndrome of accumulation of air in the pleural cavity include the following symptoms:
  718. a) a dull sound, vesicular breathing is absent
  719. b) tympanic sound, vesicular breathing is absent
  720. c) a dull sound, bronchial breathing
  721. d) tympanic sound, bronchial breathing
  722. Syndrome of pneumothorax on chest X-RAY (radiography) is characterized by:
  723. a) a cavity with a horizontal fluid level
  724. b) increase the transparency of the lungs
  725. c) intense homogeneous light shade
  726. d) illumination pulmonary field
  727. On chest X-RAY (radiography) shadow sleeping lung (lung collapse) observed in the syndrome:
  728. a) the seal of the lung tissue
  729. b) emphysema
  730. c) the accumulation of fluid in the pleural cavity
  731. d) pneumothorax
  732. e) forming a cavity in the lung
  733. The main complaint of patients with respiratory failure is a syndrome:
  734. a) cough
  735. b) expectoration
  736. c) hemoptysis
  737. d) dyspnea
  738. For respiratory distress syndrome characterized:
  739. a) thorax pain
  740. b) fever
  741. c) dru wheezing
  742. d) wet wheezing
  743. e) dyspnea
  744. For respiratory distress syndrome is characterized by the following skin color:
  745. a) acrocyanosis
  746. b) diffuse cyanosis
  747. c) cherry "red-blooded"
  748. d) pale
  749. At the level of respiratory distress syndrome of the partial pressure of oxygen in the blood:
  750. a) increased
  751. b) normal
  752. c) reduced
  753. d) increased sharply
  754. At the level of respiratory distress syndrome of the partial pressure of carbon dioxide in the blood:
  755. a) increased
  756. b) normal
  757. c) reduced
  758. d) greatly reduced
  759. Dyspnea, tachypnea, diffuse cyanosis, decreased level of O2 in the blood and an increased level of CO2 in the blood observed in syndrome:
  760. a) the seal of the lung tissue
  761. b) respiratory failure
  762. c) forming a cavity in the lung
  763. d) heart failure
  764. For asthma specific feature in auscultation is:
  765. a) the absence of vesicular breath
  766. b) crackles
  767. c) crepitus
  768. d) hard breathing, and dry rales
  769. e) pleural rub
  770. Patients with emphysema there is an increase:
  771. a) vital capacity
  772. b) the breathing capacity of the lungs
  773. c) MVL
  774. d) the residual volume of the lungs
  775. e) forced expiratory volume
  776. In the dry pleurisy chest pain decreased in the state:
  777. a) lying on the healthy side
  778. b) the patient lying on his side
  779. c) lying on his back
  780. d) lying on his stomach
  781. A specific feature of dry pleurisy when auscultation is:
  782. a) pleural rub
  783. b) dry wheezing
  784. c) crackles
  785. d) crepitus
  786. Pleural rub during auscultation typical for:
  787. a) spontaneous pneumothorax
  788. b) dry pleurisy
  789. c) acute and chronic bronchitis
  790. d) asthma
  791. e) exudative pleurisy
  792. The typical localization of coronary pain is:
  793. a) the area of the heart
  794. b) the left half of the chest
  795. c) retrosternal region
  796. d) the left shoulder
  797. e) the left half of the body
  798. After taking medication of nitroglycerin the coronary pain disappears after
  799. a) 0 - 30 sec.
  800. b) 1 - 2 minutes
  801. c) 15 - 30min
  802. d) for 1-2 hours
  803. The coronary pain irradiates
  804. a) neck and head
  805. b) the right and the left leg
  806. c) the left shoulder, left arm and shoulder blade
  807. d) the right and left upper quadrant
  808. Coronary pain is a specific feature of:
  809. a) angina pectoris
  810. b) myocarditis
  811. c) heart failure
  812. d) cardiomyopathy
  813. The duration of the coronary pain in myocardial infarction usually is:
  814. a) 5 -15 seconds
  815. b) 5 -15 minutes
  816. c) 15 - 30 minutes
  817. d) from 30 minutes to 2 hours or more
  818. Coronary pain with localization behind the sternum, pressing character associated with physical activity, radiating to the left shoulder, the duration (an average of 5 minutes), and disappears after 1-2 minutes after taking nitroglycerin obtained in:
  819. a) stable angina
  820. b) new-onset angina
  821. c) progressive angina
  822. d) spontaneous angina
  823. e) acute coronary syndrome
  824. Classical coronary pain which occurrs intermittently for 1 month, typical for:
  825. a) stable angina
  826. b) new-onset angina
  827. c) progressive angina
  828. d) spontaneous angina
  829. e) acute coronary syndrome
  830. The frequent and severe attacks with coronary pain lasting 5 to 15 minutes and the low efficiency of nitroglycerin obtained at:
  831. a) stable angina
  832. b) new-onset angina
  833. c) progressive angina
  834. d) spontaneous angina
  835. e) acute coronary syndrome
  836. Coronary pain lasting 15-30 minutes, with no clear link to physical activity and low effectiveness of nitroglycerin are characteristic:
  837. a) stable angina
  838. b) new-onset angina
  839. c) progressive angina
  840. d) spontaneous angina
  841. e) acute coronary syndrome
  842. Coronary pain lasting from 30 minutes to 2 hours or more, more expressions (“burning pain”) and the lack of effect of nitroglycerin are characteristic:
  843. a) stable angina
  844. b) new-onset angina
  845. c) progressive angina
  846. d) spontaneous angina
  847. e) acute coronary syndrome
  848. Attacks of  inspiratory dyspnea–is a sign of:
  849. a) asthma
  850. b) acute left ventricular heart failure (pulmonary edema)
  851. c) myocardial infarction
  852. d) angina
  853. Cough with frothy sputum is obtained when:
  854. a) asthma
  855. b) acute left ventricular heart failure (pulmonary edema)
  856. c) myocardial infarction
  857. d) angina
  858. Forced position "orthopnoea" occurs when:
  859. a) acute left ventricular heart failure
  860. b) acute right heart failure
  861. c) chronic right ventricular heart failure
  862. d) chronic left ventricular heart failure
  863. Acrocyanosis most typical for:
  864. a) acute and chronic left ventricular heart failure
  865. b) acute right heart failure
  866. c) chronic right ventricular heart failure
  867. d) only chronic left ventricular heart failure
  868. De Musset′s sign (rhythmical rocking of the head at the same time with the pulsation of the carotid arteries) occurs when:
  869. a) stenosis of the aortic valve
  870. b) the failure of the aortic valve
  871. c) stenosis of the mitral valve
  872. d) failure of the mitral valve
  873. The swollen neck veins occur when:
  874. a) acute left ventricular heart failure
  875. b) acute and chronic right ventricular heart failure
  876. c) only chronic right ventricular heart failure
  877. d) chronic left ventricular heart failure
  878. Capillary (arteriolar) pulse is typical for:
  879. a) mitral stenosis
  880. b) the failure of the mitral valve
  881. c) aortic stenosis
  882. d) aortic insufficiency
  883. e) failure of the tricuspid valve
  884. If there is swelling of feet and legs what will be during doctor’s finger pressure:
  885. a) there is cyanosis
  886. b) a pit or depression is formed
  887. c) there is a acute pallor
  888. d) appears hemorrhagic rash
  889. Ascites - a fluid collection:
  890. a) in the peritoneal cavity
  891. b) in the pleural cavity
  892. c) in the pericardial cavity
  893. d) throughout the body
  894. The patient during the examination revealed ascites, edema of the feet and legs. What form of heart failure occurs in this patient?:
  895. a) acute left ventricular heart failure
  896. b) acute and chronic right ventricular heart failure
  897. c) only chronic right ventricular heart failure
  898. d) chronic left ventricular heart failure
  899. The intensified pulse occurs when:
  900. a) the hypertrophy of the left atrium
  901. b) stenosis of the aortic valve
  902. c) hypertension
  903. d) failure of the aortic valve
  904. When doctor is performing palpation of  apical impulse he puts his palm of his right hand on:
  905. a) his palm on chest and fingers on axillary region between the V and VI ribs
  906. b) IV intercostal space left of the sternum
  907. c) the top of the heart and the second intercostal space to the right
  908. d) the second intercostal space on the right
  909. The apical impulse - a strike of the heart apex to the chest during:
  910. a) the systole
  911. b) diastole
  912. c) systole and diastole
  913. d) inhalation
  914. e) an exhalation
  915. The normal apical impulse is located in the V intercostal space on the left:
  916. a) 1 cm medially from the left midclavicular line
  917. b) 1 cm outwards from the left leftmidclavicular line
  918. c) at the left midclavicular line
  919. d) at 2 cm laterally from the left midclavicular line
  920. The displacement or movement of apical impulse to the left than in normal indicates:
  921. a) the hypertrophy of the left atrium
  922. b) left ventricular hypertrophy
  923. c) hypertrophy of the right atrium
  924. d) right ventricular hypertrophy
  925. The increased area, strength and resistance of apical impulse occurs in:
  926. a) the hypertrophy of the left atrium
  927. b) left ventricular hypertrophy
  928. c) hypertrophy of the right atrium
  929. d) right ventricular hypertrophy
  930. The displacement or movement of apical impulse to the left and downwardthan in normal is obtained when:
  931. a) the hypertrophy and dilatation of the left atrium
  932. b) hypertrophy and dilation of the left ventricle
  933. c) hypertrophy and dilatation of the right atrium
  934. d) hypertrophy and dilatation of the right ventricle
  935. Cardiac impulse –is a strike to the chest of:
  936. a) the apex of the left ventricle
  937. b) of the left ventricle
  938. c) the heart, especially of the right ventricle
  939. d) the right atrium
  940. e) of the left atrium
  941. To determine the cardiac impulse palm of the right hand of the doctor is placed:
  942. a) on top of the heart
  943. b) in II intercostal space to the right
  944. c) in II intercostal space on the left
  945. d) in the IV intercostal space left of the sternum
  946. e) IV intercostal space to the right of the sternum
  947. In normally cardiac impulse:
  948. a) determined at people with asthenic constitution
  949. b) with hypersthenic constitution
  950. c) determined in children
  951. d) is not determined
  952. The obtaining of cardiac impulseduring palpation o is characteristic for:
  953. a) the hypertrophy of the left atrium
  954. b) left ventricular hypertrophy
  955. c) hypertrophy of the right atrium
  956. d) right ventricular hypertrophy
  957. To determine the epigastric pulsation of the palm of the right hand is placed:
  958. a) on top of the heart
  959. b) in II intercostal space to the right
  960. c) in II intercostal space on the left
  961. d) under the xiphoid process of the sternum
  962. e) in the left epigastric region
  963. In normal the epigastric pulsation is:
  964. a) determined at asthenic constitution
  965. b) determined at hypersthenics
  966. c) determined in children
  967. d) is not determined
  968. Epigastric pulsation is a characteristic feature of:
  969. a) the hypertrophy of the left atrium
  970. b) left ventricular hypertrophy
  971. c) hypertrophy of the right atrium
  972. d) right ventricular hypertrophy
  973. The presence of epigastric pulsation is synchronous with:
  974. a) apical impulse
  975. b) apex impulse to the left and down
  976. c) the presence of cardiac impulse
  977. d) lack of apical impulse
  978. The absence of a pulse in the carotid arteries - is one of the significant features of:
  979. a) atherosclerosis
  980. b) aortic stenosis
  981. c) clinical death
  982. d) myocardial infarction
  983. e) hypertension
  984. The borders of the relative dullness of heart means the border of:
  985. a) the left atrium
  986. b) the right atrium
  987. c) the left ventricle
  988. d) the right ventricle
  989. e) the heart
  990. The borders of absolute dullnes of the heart mean the border of:
  991. a) the left atrium
  992. b) the right atrium
  993. c) the left ventricle
  994. d) the right ventricle
  995. e) the heart
  996. Normally, the right border of the relative dullness of the heart is determined:
  997. a) 1 cm outwards from the right edge of the sternum in the IV intercostal space
  998. b) 1 cm medially from the left midclavicular line in the V intercostal space
  999. c) in the III intercostal space on the left
  1000. d) equal with the apical impulse
  1001. Normally, the left border of the relative dullness of the heart is determined:
  1002. a) 1 cm outwards from the right edge of the sternum in the IV intercostal space
  1003. b) 1 cm medially from the left midclavicular line in the V intercostal space
  1004. c) in II intercostal space on the left
  1005. d) 1 cm outwards from the left midclavicular line in the V between
  1006. The displacement of the left border of the relative dullness of the heart to the left is characteristic for:
  1007. a) the hypertrophy of the left atrium
  1008. b) left ventricular hypertrophy
  1009. c) hypertrophy of the right atrium
  1010. d) right ventricular hypertrophy
  1011. The displacement of the relative dullness of the heart to the left and down is typical for:
  1012. a) the hypertrophy and dilatation of the left atrium
  1013. b) hypertrophy and dilation of the left ventricle
  1014. c) hypertrophy and dilatation of the right atrium
  1015. d) hypertrophy and dilatation of the right ventricle
  1016. The displacement of the relative dullness of the heart up is typical for:
  1017. a) the hypertrophy of the left atrium
  1018. b) left ventricular hypertrophy
  1019. c) hypertrophy of the right atrium
  1020. d) right ventricular hypertrophy
  1021. The waist of the heart is smoothed when:
  1022. a) the hypertrophy of the left atrium
  1023. b) left ventricular hypertrophy
  1024. c) hypertrophy of the right atrium
  1025. d) right ventricular hypertrophy
  1026. The waist of the heart is more definite than normal means:
  1027. a) the hypertrophy of the left atrium
  1028. b) left ventricular hypertrophy
  1029. c) hypertrophy of the right atrium
  1030. d) right ventricular hypertrophy
  1031. The displacement of the right relative dullness at its right border  to the right is typical for:
  1032. a) the hypertrophy of the left atrium
  1033. b) left ventricular hypertrophy
  1034. c) hypertrophy of the right atrium
  1035. d) right ventricular hypertrophy
  1036. The expanding of the borders of the absolute heart dullness  is obtained in:
  1037. a) the hypertrophy of the left atrium
  1038. b) left ventricular hypertrophy
  1039. c) hypertrophy of the right atrium
  1040. d) right ventricular hypertrophy
  1041. The coincidence or equality of the borders of the relative and absolute dullness of the heart is typical for:
  1042. a) the hypertrophy of the left atrium
  1043. b) left ventricular hypertrophy
  1044. c) hypertrophy of the right atrium
  1045. d) right ventricular hypertrophy
  1046. e) syndrome fluid accumulation in the pericardial cavity
  1047. The displacement of the upper border of the relative dullness of the heart up and smoothed  waist is typical for:
  1048. a) the hypertrophy of the left atrium
  1049. b) left ventricular hypertrophy
  1050. c) hypertrophy of the right atrium
  1051. d) right ventricular hypertrophy
  1052. The combination of having a heart push and expand the borders of absolute dullnes of the heart is typical for:
  1053. a) the hypertrophy of the left atrium
  1054. b) left ventricular hypertrophy
  1055. c) hypertrophy of the right atrium
  1056. d) right ventricular hypertrophy
  1057. The sequence or order of auscultation of the heart valves:
  1058. a) mitral, aortic, pulmonary, tricuspid
  1059. b) the aortic, mitral, pulmonary, tricuspid
  1060. c) pulmonary, mitral, aortic, tricuspid
  1061. d) the tricuspid, mitral, aortic, pulmonary
  1062. During auscultation of the heart assess:
  1063. a) heart sounds and murmurs of the heart
  1064. b) blood pressure
  1065. c) the size of the heart
  1066. d) cardiac output
  1067. The first tone is made by the systole  of which valves:
  1068. a) the aortic valve
  1069. b) the tricuspid and mitral valves
  1070. c) the pulmonary valve
  1071. d) the aortic valve and the pulmonary artery
  1072. The second tone is made by which valves:
  1073. a) the aortic valve and the pulmonary valve
  1074. b) of the mitral and tricuspid valves
  1075. c) the mitral valve
  1076. d) pulmonary valve
  1077. The performance of the auscultation of first tone:
  1078. a) at the top and at the base of the xiphoid process
  1079. b) in the second intercostal space to the right
  1080. c) in the second intercostal space on the left
  1081. d) in the second intercostal space to the left and right
  1082. The performance of the auscultation of second tone
  1083. a) at the top
  1084. b) at the base of the xiphoid process
  1085. c) in the second intercostal space to the right and left
  1086. d) at the top and at the base of the xiphoid process
  1087. The  I tone at the apex is obtained at:
  1088. a) the failure of the mitral valve
  1089. b) the tricuspid valve
  1090. c) failure of the aortic valve
  1091. d) stenosis of the left atrioventricular opening
  1092. e) aortic stenosis
  1093. Weakening of th first tone at the top is obtained at:
  1094. a) the failure of mitral valve disease and infarction
  1095. b) stenosis of the mitral valve
  1096. c) stenosis of the tricuspid valve
  1097. d) failure of the tricuspid valve
  1098. Accent of  II tone in II intercostal space on the right is obtained when:
  1099. a) aortic stenosis
  1100. b) the insufficiency of the aortic valve
  1101. c) hypertensive disease
  1102. d) pulmonary hypertension.
  1103. The weakening of II tone in II intercostal space on the right is obtained when:
  1104. a) aortic stenosis and insufficiency of the aortic valve
  1105. b) hypertensive disease
  1106. c) pulmonary hypertension
  1107. d) mitral stenosis
  1108. Emphasis of II tone in II intercostal space on the left is characteristic for:
  1109. a) arterial hypertension
  1110. b) hypotension
  1111. c) pulmonary hypertension
  1112. d) stenosis pulmonary valve
  1113. e) pulmonary valve insufficiency
  1114. The weakening of II tone in II intercostal space on the left is characteristic for:
  1115. a) the failure of stenosis and pulmonary valve
  1116. b) pulmonary hypertension
  1117. c) hypertension
  1118. d) aortic valve stenosis
  1119. Theemphasis of I tone at the base of the xiphoid process is typical for:
  1120. a) the failure of the mitral valve
  1121. b) stenosis of the tricuspid valve
  1122. c) failure of the mitral valve
  1123. d) the tricuspid valve stenosis
  1124. The weakening of I tone at the base of the xiphoid process is typical for:
  1125. a) the failure of the mitral valve
  1126. b) stenosis of the mitral valve
  1127. c) the tricuspid valve
  1128. d) the tricuspid valve stenosis
  1129. The appearance of III additional tones at the apex of the heart is a specific sign of:
  1130. a) failure of the mitral valve
  1131. b) stenosis of the mitral valve
  1132. c) the tricuspid valve
  1133. d) the tricuspid valve stenosis
  1134. The appearance of III additional tones at the base of the xiphoid process characteristic:
  1135. a) the failure of the mitral valve
  1136. b) stenosis of the mitral valve
  1137. c) the tricuspid valve
  1138. d) the tricuspid valve stenosis
  1139. The occurrence of III pathological tone is typical for a severe defeat:
  1140. a) endocardium
  1141. b) myocardium
  1142. c) pericardium
  1143. d) large vessels
  1144. The appearance of systolic murmur at the apex of the heart is typical for:
  1145. a) the failure of the mitral valve
  1146. b) stenosis of the mitral valve
  1147. c) the tricuspid valve
  1148. d) the tricuspid valve stenosis
  1149. Systolic murmur in II intercostal space on the right and at the point Botkin-Erb is listened when:
  1150. a) stenosis of the aortic valve
  1151. b) the insufficiency of the aortic valve
  1152. c) the tricuspid valve
  1153. d) failure pulmonary valve
  1154. e) pulmonary valve stenosis
  1155. Systolic murmur on the basis of the xiphoid process is typical for:
  1156. a) the failure of the mitral valve
  1157. b) stenosis of the mitral valve
  1158. c) the tricuspid valve
  1159. d) the tricuspid valve stenosis
  1160. Systolic murmur in II intercostal space on the left is obtained when:
  1161. a) stenosis of the aortic valve
  1162. b) the insufficiency of the aortic valve
  1163. c) the tricuspid valve
  1164. d) failure pulmonary valve
  1165. e) pulmonary valve stenosis
  1166. At what heart defects systolic murmur conducted on the carotid artery:
  1167. a) failure of the mitral valve
  1168. b) the tricuspid valve
  1169. c) aortic stenosis
  1170. d) stenosis pulmonary valve
  1171. Diastolic murmur at the apex of the heart occurs when:
  1172. a) the failure of the mitral valve
  1173. b) stenosis of the mitral valve
  1174. c) the tricuspid valve
  1175. d) the tricuspid valve stenosis
  1176. The diastolic murmur at the base of the xiphoid process occurs when:
  1177. a) the failure of the mitral valve
  1178. b) stenosis of the mitral valve
  1179. c) the tricuspid valve
  1180. d) the tricuspid valve stenosis
  1181. The diastolic murmur in II intercostal space on the right and at the point Botkin-Erb obtained in:
  1182. a) aortic valve regurgitation
  1183. b) stenosis of the aortic valve
  1184. c) stenosis pulmonary valve
  1185. d) pulmonary valve insufficiency
  1186. The diastolic murmur in II intercostal space on the left is characteristic for:
  1187. a) aortic valve regurgitation
  1188. b) stenosis of the aortic valve
  1189. c) stenosis pulmonary valve
  1190. d) pulmonary valve insufficiency
  1191. Pericardial rub occurs when:
  1192. a) syndrome, inflammation of the myocardium
  1193. b) dry pericarditis
  1194. c) syndrome fluid accumulation in the pericardial cavity
  1195. d) endocardial lesions syndrome
  1196. Pericardial rub with pressure stethoscope:
  1197. a) becomes stronger
  1198. b) weakens
  1199. c) disappears
  1200. d) does not change
  1201. Which large vessels you can perform auscultation:
  1202. a) of the aorta
  1203. b) of the carotid, subclavian, brachial and femoral arteries
  1204. c) the ulnar artery
  1205. d) temporal artery
  1206. In some cases, auscultation of the renal arteries can be heard, when:
  1207. a) always
  1208. b) for hypertension in the elderly
  1209. c) for hypertension in the young
  1210. d) with hypotension in the young
  1211. Normally, the auscultation of the carotid, subclavian and brachial arteries:
  1212. a) is defined by three tones
  1213. b) is determined by the two-tone
  1214. c) is defined by a single tone
  1215. d) are not defined tones
  1216. Normally, auscultation femoral arteries:
  1217. a) is defined by three tones
  1218. b) is determined by the two-tone
  1219. c) is defined by a single tone
  1220. d) are not defined
  1221. Normally, the auscultation of the carotid, subclavian and brachial arteries:
  1222. a) is defined by a triple noise
  1223. b) determined by dual noise
  1224. c) is determined by a noise
  1225. d) is not determined by the noise
  1226. Normally, the auscultation femoral arteries:
  1227. a) is defined by a triple noise
  1228. b) determined by dual noise
  1229. c) is determined by a noise
  1230. d) is not determined by the noise
  1231. Normally, the auscultation of the renal arteries:
  1232. a) is defined by a triple noise
  1233. b) determined by dual noise
  1234. c) is determined by a noise
  1235. d) is not determined by the noise
  1236. Systolic murmur on the carotid, subclavian and brachial artery occurs when:
  1237. a) nonspecific inflammation of aorta and coarctation of the aorta
  1238. b) stenosis of the mitral valve
  1239. c) aortic valve regurgitation
  1240. d) failure of the mitral valve
  1241. Systolic murmur on the carotid arteries in combination with a systolic murmur in II intercostal space on the right and at the point Botkin-Erb can be obtained in:
  1242. a) nonspecific aortoarteriit and coarctation of the aorta
  1243. b) stenosis of the mitral valve
  1244. c) aortic valve regurgitation
  1245. d) failure of the mitral valve
  1246. The dual tone Traube on Friday femoral arteries is obtained in:
  1247. a) nonspecific aortoarteriit and coarctation of the aorta
  1248. b) stenosis of the mitral valve
  1249. c) aortic valve regurgitation
  1250. d) failure of the mitral valve
  1251. Dual noise Duroziez femoral arteries observed in:
  1252. a) nonspecific aortoarteriit and coarctation of the aorta
  1253. b) stenosis of the mitral valve
  1254. c) aortic valve regurgitation
  1255. d) failure of the mitral valve
  1256. Systolic murmur in the renal arteries occurs when:
  1257. a) renal artery stenosis
  1258. b) the dilatation of the renal artery
  1259. c) stenosis of the mitral valve
  1260. d) failure of the aortic valve
  1261. e) failure of the mitral valve
  1262. In physician”s clinical practice, the blood pressure measurement is performed in:
  1263. a) the aorta
  1264. b) the carotid arteries
  1265. c) the subclavian artery
  1266. d) of the brachial artery
  1267. e) the femoral arteries
  1268. To assess the level of blood pressure should be performed:
  1269. a) one measurement
  1270. b) at least two (2) measurements with interval in 1 min
  1271. c) at least two (2) measurements with interval in 1 hour
  1272. d) not less than three (3) measurements with interval in 1 min
  1273. As the most correct value of the blood pressure is taken:
  1274. a) a higher value of the last two measurements
  1275. b) the lower of the two last measurements
  1276. c) the average of the last two measurements
  1277. d) the average of all measurements
  1278. The normal blood pressure is:
  1279. a) 120/80 mm Hg.
  1280. b) 90/60 - 120/80 mm Hg
  1281. c) 100/60 - 139/89 mm Hg
  1282. d) was 140/90 mm Hg. and higher
  1283. The normal pulse pressure is:
  1284. a) 20-25 mm Hg
  1285. b) 30-35 mm Hg
  1286. c) 40-45 mm Hg
  1287. d) of 50-55 mm Hg
  1288. Hypertension - the number of blood pressure in mm. Hg. is:
  1289. a) 100/60 or higher
  1290. b) 120/80 or higher
  1291. c) 130/85 or higher
  1292. d) 140/90 or higher
  1293. Increased pulse pressure is obtained when:
  1294. a) arterial hypertension
  1295. b) arterial hypotension
  1296. c) aortic stenosis
  1297. d) failure of the aortic valve
  1298. e) failure of the mitral valve
  1299. In a normal blood pressure of the femoral artery as compared with the brachial artery:
  1300. a) below
  1301. b) above
  1302. c) the same
  1303. d) was acutely lower
  1304. The blood pressure of femoral artery is lower than in the brachial artery. What may indicate:
  1305. a) coarctation of the aorta
  1306. b) of the mitral stenosis
  1307. c) on aortic stenosis
  1308. d) of the aortic valve
  1309. e) failure of the mitral valve
  1310. Incensed pulse (pulsusdurus) is detected in a syndrome:
  1311. a) the hypertrophy of the left atrium
  1312. b) left ventricular hypertrophy
  1313. c) hypertrophy of the right atrium
  1314. d) right ventricular hypertrophy
  1315. e) arterial hypertension
  1316. f) hypotension
  1317. A large, high and fast heart rate obtained in:
  1318. a) the hypertrophy of the left atrium
  1319. b) stenosis of the aortic valve
  1320. c) hypertension
  1321. d) failure of the aortic valve
  1322. Small and slow heart rate obtained in:
  1323. a) the hypertrophy of the left atrium
  1324. b) stenosis of the aortic valve
  1325. c) hypertension
  1326. d) failure of the aortic valve
  1327. The absence of a pulse on one of the radial artery is obtained when:
  1328. a) hypertrophy of the left atrium
  1329. b) stenosis of the aortic valve
  1330. c) hypertension
  1331. d) failure of the aortic valve
  1332. e) non-specific aortoarteriit and Takayasu′s disease
  1333. The lack of pulse is obtained in the form of heart rhythm disorders:
  1334. a) extrasystoles
  1335. b) atrial fibrillation
  1336. c) paroxysmal tachycardia
  1337. d) the full degree A-V block
  1338. e) ventricular fibrillation
  1339. Hypercholesterolemia is a specific feature:
  1340. a) arterial hypertension
  1341. b) atherosclerosis
  1342. c) heart disease
  1343. d) of coronary heart disease
  1344. Hyperenzymemia (increase of cardiac enzymes) is characteristic:
  1345. a) myocardial infarction
  1346. b) angina
  1347. c) congenital heart disease
  1348. d) pericarditis
  1349. e) hypertension
  1350. the X-RAY of aortic heart obtained :
  1351. a) the hypertrophy of the left atrium
  1352. b) left ventricular hypertrophy
  1353. c) hypertrophy of the right atrium
  1354. d) right ventricular hypertrophy
  1355. the X-RAY of mitral configuration of the heart occurs when:
  1356. a) the hypertrophy of the left atrium
  1357. b) left ventricular hypertrophy
  1358. c) hypertrophy of the right atrium
  1359. d) right ventricular hypertrophy
  1360. The number of leads in the ECG is normal:
  1361. a) 3
  1362. b) 6
  1363. c) 12
  1364. d) 24
  1365. e) 36
  1366. In the classical ECG in each lead recorded the following number of cardiac cycles:
  1367. a) at least 2
  1368. b) at least 3
  1369. c) not less than 4
  1370. d) from 4 to 6 or more
  1371. In the ECG with the speed of the paper 50 mm/sec. the distance of 1 mm (or 1 small cell) on the tape corresponds to:
  1372. a) with 0.01
  1373. b) 02
  1374. c) 05
  1375. d) 1
  1376. In the ECG with the speed of the paper 50 mm/sec. the distance of 5 mm (or 1 large cage) on the tape corresponds to:
  1377. a) with 0.01
  1378. b) 02
  1379. c) 05
  1380. d) 1
  1381. The rhythm is correct when ECG detected the same length of the interval:
  1382. a) PP
  1383. b) R-R
  1384. c) S-S
  1385. d) Q-Q
  1386. e) T-T
  1387. In healthy people, the horizontal position of the electrical axis of the heart is seen in:
  1388. a) normostenik
  1389. b) hypersthenics
  1390. c) astenikov
  1391. d) normostenik and astenikov
  1392. In healthy people, the vertical position of the electrical axis of the heart is seen in:
  1393. a) normostenik
  1394. b) hypersthenics
  1395. c) astenikov
  1396. d) normostenik and hypersthenics
  1397. The P wave on the electrocardiogram reflects the excitement:
  1398. a) the right atrium
  1399. b) of the left atrium
  1400. c) the left ventricle
  1401. d) the right ventricle
  1402. e) the right and left atria
  1403. The rate of the electrocardiogram P wave in lead aVR:
  1404. a) positive
  1405. b) negative
  1406. c) two-phase
  1407. d) two-prong
  1408. The rate of the electrocardiogram P wave in lead V1-2:
  1409. a) positive
  1410. b) negative
  1411. c) two-phase
  1412. d) two-prong
  1413. On the electrocardiogram PQ interval reflects the time passage of pulses:
  1414. a) the ventricles
  1415. b) atria
  1416. c) in the interventricular septum
  1417. d) in the atrioventricular compound
  1418. e) of bundle branch block
  1419. In a normal electrocardiogram PQ interval duration (in seconds) is equal to:
  1420. a) 03-0.1
  1421. b) 05-0.1
  1422. c) 0,1-0,16
  1423. d) 0,12-0,20
  1424. QRS complex on the electrocardiogram reflects the excitement:
  1425. a) sinus
  1426. b) atrial
  1427. c) ventricles
  1428. d) A-V node
  1429. On the electrocardiogram the Q wave:
  1430. a) is always positive
  1431. b) is always negative
  1432. c) can be either positive or negative
  1433. d) may be biphasic
  1434. The depth of Q wave on the electrocardiogram is normal:
  1435. a) no more than 5 mm
  1436. b) 5-10 mm
  1437. c) 10-15 mm
  1438. d) not more than 1/4 R
  1439. e) not more than 1/4 S
  1440. The duration of Q wave on the electrocardiogram was normal in seconds:
  1441. a) not more than 0.03
  1442. b) 03-0.05
  1443. c) 06-0.1
  1444. d) 1-0.3
  1445. e) more than 0.03
  1446. R-wave on the electrocardiogram is normal:
  1447. a) is always positive
  1448. b) is always negative
  1449. c) can be either positive or negative
  1450. d) may be biphasic
  1451. The rate of the electrocardiogram in precordial leads maximum R wave is noted in:
  1452. a) V1
  1453. b) V2
  1454. c) V3
  1455. d) V4
  1456. e) V5
  1457. f) V6
  1458. The S wave is normal in the electrocardiogram:
  1459. a) is always positive
  1460. b) is always negative
  1461. c) can be either positive or negative
  1462. d) may be biphasic
  1463. The normal electrocardiogram transitional zone is located in the chest leads following:
  1464. a) V1
  1465. b) V2
  1466. c) V3
  1467. d) V4
  1468. e) V5
  1469. f) V6
  1470. Normally, the ST segment of the electrocardiogram is:
  1471. a) contour
  1472. b) up to 1 mm from the contour
  1473. c) from 1 mm down contour
  1474. d) up to 2 mm from the contour
  1475. e) of 2 mm below the contour
  1476. The T wave at normal electrocardiogram leads I, II, avF, V6-V2:
  1477. a) always positive
  1478. b) is always negative
  1479. c) can be either positive or negative
  1480. d) may be biphasic
  1481. The T wave in normal electrocardiogram in leads III, avL and V1 is:
  1482. a) is always positive
  1483. b) is always negative
  1484. c) can be both positive and negative, it can be a two-phase
  1485. d) dvuhgorby
  1486. The T′wave in normal electrocardiogram in lead avR is:
  1487. a) is always positive
  1488. b) is always negative
  1489. c) can be both positive and negative, it can be a two-phase
  1490. d) dvuhgorby
  1491. The sign of the deviation electrical axis to the right of the heart on electrocardiogram is:
  1492. a) RIII> RII> RI
  1493. b) RI> RII> RIII
  1494. c) RII> RI> RIII
  1495. d) RII> RIII> RI
  1496. The sign of the deviation electrical axis to the left on the electrocardiogram is:
  1497. a) RIII> RII> RI
  1498. b) RI> RII> RIII
  1499. c) RII> RI> RIII
  1500. d) RII> RIII> RI
  1501. The axis deviation to the right on the electrocardiogram characteristic of hypertrophy:
  1502. a) the right atrium
  1503. b) of the left atrium
  1504. c) the left ventricle
  1505. d) the right ventricle
  1506. The axis deviation to the left of the electrocardiogram is characteristic of hypertrophy:
  1507. a) the right atrium
  1508. b) of the left atrium
  1509. c) the left ventricle
  1510. d) the right ventricle
  1511. P-pulmonale - is the appearance of the electrocardiogram:
  1512. a) high, peaked P wave in leads III and avF
  1513. b) wide and two-humped P wave in leads I and avL
  1514. c) a negative P wave in leads III and avF
  1515. d) negative P wave in leads I and avL
  1516. P-mitrale - is the appearance of the electrocardiogram:
  1517. a) high, peaked P wave in leads III and avF
  1518. b) wide and two-humped P wave in leads I and avL
  1519. c) a negative P wave in leads III and avF
  1520. d) negative P wave in leads I and avL
  1521. On the electrocardiogram P- pulmonale occurs with hypertrophy of:
  1522. a) the right atrium
  1523. b) of the left atrium
  1524. c) the left ventricle
  1525. d) the right ventricle
  1526. On the electrocardiogram P-mitrale occurs with hypertrophy of:
  1527. a) the right atrium
  1528. b) of the left atrium
  1529. c) the left ventricle
  1530. d) the right ventricle
  1531. The increase in the interval PQ (more than 0,20s) in the electrocardiogram obtained in:
  1532. a) atrial fibrillation
  1533. b) beats
  1534. c) the A-V heart block
  1535. d) premature ventricular syndrome (syndrome WPW)
  1536. Reducing the interval PQ (less than 0,12s) in the electrocardiogram obtained in:
  1537. a) atrial fibrillation
  1538. b) beats
  1539. c) the A-V heart block
  1540. d) premature ventricular syndrome (syndrome WPW)
  1541. The absence of P wave, the presence of waves F (f) instead of the P wave and the existence of different RR interval on the electrocardiogram is an absolute indication of:
  1542. a) atrial fibrillation
  1543. b) beats
  1544. c) the A-V heart block
  1545. d) premature ventricular syndrome (syndrome WPW)
  1546. The negative T waves on the electrocardiogram - a sign:
  1547. a) myocardial ischemia
  1548. b) myocardial damage
  1549. c) myocardial necrosis
  1550. d) scar (cardiosclerosis)
  1551. The displacement in the ST segment of 1mm or more down (depressed) or up (rise) in the electrocardiogram - a sign:
  1552. a) myocardial ischemia
  1553. b) myocardial damage
  1554. c) myocardial necrosis
  1555. d) scar (cardiosclerosis)
  1556. The displacement in the ST segment of 1mm or more down (depression) on the electrocardiogram is a characteristic feature:
  1557. a) myocardial infarction
  1558. b) myocardial infarction
  1559. c) angina and acute coronary syndrome
  1560. d) spontaneous angina and acute coronary syndrome
  1561. The displacement in the ST segment of 1mm or more up (rise) in the electrocardiogram is a characteristic feature:
  1562. a) myocardial infarction
  1563. b) myocardial infarction
  1564. c) angina and acute coronary syndrome
  1565. d) spontaneous angina and acute coronary syndrome
  1566. Q wave on the electrocardiogram is considered abnormal if it:
  1567. a) The width of> 0.01 and a depth of more than 1/4 R
  1568. b) The width of> 0.03 and a depth of more than 1/4 R
  1569. c) The width of> 0.03 and a depth of more than 1/4 S
  1570. d) the width of <0.03 seconds
  1571. Pathological Q wave on the electrocardiogram - a sign:
  1572. a) myocardial ischemia
  1573. b) myocardial damage
  1574. c) myocardial necrosis or scar (cardiosclerosis)
  1575. d) myocardial degeneration
  1576. The presence of abnormal electrocardiographic Q wave is a sign:
  1577. a) myocardial infarction or post- infarction cardiosclerosis
  1578. b) new-onset angina
  1579. c) angina
  1580. d) spontaneous angina
  1581. What is the instrumental non-invasive method is currently the most accurate method for diagnosing heart defects:
  1582. a) X-ray of the heart
  1583. b) an electrocardiogram
  1584. c) phonocardiogram
  1585. d) an echocardiogram
  1586. What is the instrumental non-invasive method is currently the most accurate method of myocardial hypertrophy:
  1587. a) X-ray of the heart
  1588. b) an electrocardiogram
  1589. c) phonocardiogram
  1590. d) an echocardiogram
  1591. What is the instrumental non-invasive method is currently the most accurate method of detecting the early stages of chronic heart failure:
  1592. a) X-ray of the heart
  1593. b) an electrocardiogram
  1594. c) phonocardiogram
  1595. d) an echocardiogram
  1596. Electrocardiographic test with physical exercise (bicycle stress test) is used to diagnose:
  1597. a) myocardial infarction or post- infarction cardiosclerosis
  1598. b) new-onset angina
  1599. c) angina
  1600. d) spontaneous angina
  1601. Electrocardiographic test with physical exercise (bicycle stress test) is considered to be negative if:
  1602. a) is reached submaximal heart rate, without the dynamics of the segment ST
  1603. b) noted an attack of coronary pain and / or ST-segment depression of 1 mm or more
  1604. c) develops severe shortness of breath
  1605. d) develop severe weakness
  1606. Electrocardiographic test with physical exercise (bicycle stress test) is considered positive if:
  1607. a) is reached submaximal heart rate, without the dynamics of the segment ST
  1608. b) noted an attack of coronary pain and / or ST-segment depression of 1 mm or more
  1609. c) develops severe shortness of breath
  1610. d) develop severe weakness
  1611. A positive test with electrocardiographic exercise (bicycle stress test) is characteristic:
  1612. a) myocardial infarction or post- infarction cardiosclerosis
  1613. b) new-onset angina
  1614. c) angina
  1615. d) spontaneous angina
  1616. Hour electrocardiographic monitoring was used to diagnose:
  1617. a) myocardial infarction or post- infarction cardioclerosis
  1618. b) new-onset angina
  1619. c) angina
  1620. d) spontaneous angina
  1621. Hour electrocardiographic monitoring was considered positive if the obtained:
  1622. a) tachycardia
  1623. b) ST-segment depression of 1 mm or more
  1624. c) ST-segment elevation of 1 mm or more
  1625. d) arrhythmia and heart block.
  1626. Positive results around the clock electrocardiographic monitoring characteristic for:
  1627. a) myocardial infarction or post- infarction cardiosclerosis
  1628. b) new-onset angina
  1629. c) angina
  1630. d) spontaneous angina
  1631. The syndrome of hypertension - high blood pressure is higher than:
  1632. a) 100/70 mm. Hg
  1633. b) 110/75 mm Hg
  1634. c) 120/80 mm Hg
  1635. d) 130/85 mm Hg
  1636. e) 140/90 mm. Hg
  1637. The syndrome of arterial hypertension the pulse on radial artery is:
  1638. a) filling and high voltage
  1639. b) small filling
  1640. c) a large and high
  1641. d) is absent
  1642. e) slow
  1643. The hypertension syndrome the II tone in the second intercostal space on the right is:
  1644. a) strengthened (emphasis)
  1645. b) is weakened
  1646. c) is not changed
  1647. d) offline
  1648. The hypertension syndrome develops hypertrophy of:
  1649. a) the left atrium
  1650. b) the right atrium
  1651. c) the left ventricle
  1652. d) the right ventricle
  1653. The syndrome of hypertension during the fundus examination revealed:
  1654. a) narrowing of arterioles
  1655. b) expansion of arterioles
  1656. c) the restriction of venules
  1657. d) expansion of arterioles and venules narrowing
  1658. The specific features of the syndrome of coronary insufficiency on the background of angina pectoris during coronary attack pain on electrocardiogram is:

а) ST-segment depression 1 mm or more

  1. b) ST-segment elevation 1 mm or more
  2. c) pathological tooth Q
  3. d) negative (CABG) T wave
  4. e) All right
  5. The syndrome of coronary heart disease on the background of stable angina coronary duration of pain:
  6. a) 0-60 seconds
  7. b) 1-3 minutes
  8. c) 2-15 (average 5) minutes
  9. d) from 30min to 2 hours or more
  10. In variations of coronary syndrome insufficiency with coronary infarction duration of pain:
  11. a) 0-60 seconds
  12. b) 1-3 minutes
  13. c) 2-15 (average 5) minutes
  14. d) from 30min to 2 hours or more
  15. For coronary insufficiency syndrome during an attack of coronary pain and electrocardiographic test with physical exercise (bicycle stress test) on the electrocardiogram is characterized by:
  16. a) ST-segment depression of 1 mm or more
  17. b) ST-segment elevation of 1 mm or more
  18. c) pathological tooth Q
  19. d) shortening of the interval P-Q
  20. The syndrome of coronary insufficiency of coronary attacks of pain and ST segment depression of 1 mm or more in the electrocardiogram obtained for this form of coronary heart disease, such as:
  21. a) stable angina
  22. b) progressive angina
  23. c) spontaneous angina
  24. d) acute coronary syndrome
  25. e) myocardial infarction
  26. The coronary insufficiency syndrome as frequent attacks and severe attacks with coronary pain lasting 5 to 15 minutes and ST segment depression of 1 mm or more on an electrocardiogram obtained in the form of a coronary heart disease as:
  27. a) stable angina
  28. b) progressive angina
  29. c) spontaneous angina
  30. d) acute coronary syndrome
  31. e) myocardial infarction
  32. The syndrome of coronary insufficiency of coronary pain attacks with a duration of 15 to 30 minutes and ST segment elevation on 1 mm or more on an electrocardiogram obtained in the form of a coronary heart disease as:
  33. a) stable angina
  34. b) progressive angina
  35. c) spontaneous angina
  36. d) acute coronary syndrome
  37. e) myocardial infarction
  38. The coronary insufficiency syndrome episodically coronary pain, a duration of 30 minutes to 2 hours or more, elevation or depression of ST segment by 1 mm or more is obtained in the electrocardiogram in this form of coronary heart disease as:
  39. a) stable angina
  40. b) progressive angina
  41. c) spontaneous angina
  42. d) acute coronary syndrome
  43. e) myocardial infarction
  44. The coronary insufficiency syndrome episodically coronary pain, a duration to 2 hours or more, increased level of cardiac enzyme levels, the presence of pathological Q wave on the electrocardiogram is obtained in a form of coronary heart disease as:
  45. a) stable angina
  46. b) progressive angina
  47. c) spontaneous angina
  48. d) acute coronary syndrome
  49. e) myocardial infarction
  50. The syndrome of left ventricular hypertrophy displaced apical impulse:
  51. a) to the right
  52. b) up
  53. c) to the left
  54. d) to the left and downward
  55. The syndrome dilation of the left ventricle displaced apical impulse:
  56. a) to the right
  57. b) up
  58. c) to the left
  59. d) to the left and downward
  60. The syndrome of left ventricular hypertrophy, apical impulse:
  61. a) unchanged
  62. b) is weakened
  63. c) poured, reinforced
  64. d) is not determined
  65. The syndrome of left ventricular hypertrophy, left border of the relative dullness of the heart is displaced:
  66. a) to the right
  67. b) up
  68. c) to the left
  69. d) to the left and downward
  70. The syndrome dilation of the left ventricle left border of the relative dullness of the heart is displaced:
  71. a) to the right
  72. b) up
  73. c) to the left
  74. d) to the left and downward
  75. The syndrome hypertrophy and dilation of the left ventricle in the electrocardiogram obtained displacement of the transition zone:
  76. a) the right
  77. b) up
  78. c) to the left
  79. d) to the left and downward
  80. The syndrome hypertrophy and dilatation of the left atrium the upper limit of the relative dullness of the heart is displaced:
  81. a) to the right
  82. b) up
  83. c) to the left
  84. d) to the left and downward
  85. The syndrome hypertrophy and dilatation of the left atrium on the electrocardiogram revealed:
  86. a) P-mitrale
  87. b) P-pulmonale
  88. c) P-cardiale
  89. d) P-aortale
  90. The syndrome hypertrophy and dilatation of the right ventricle during the inspection and palpation of the epigastric pulsation and cardiac impulse:
  91. a) is not available
  92. b) defined
  93. c) the weakened
  94. d) enhanced
  95. The syndrome hypertrophy and dilatation of the right ventricle size of the absolute dullnes of the heart:
  96. a) unchanged
  97. b) increased
  98. c) reduced
  99. d) the same size as the relative dullness of the heart
  100. The syndrome hypertrophy and dilatation of the right ventricle in the electrocardiogram of the heart electrical axis rejected:
  101. a) to the right
  102. b) up
  103. c) to the left
  104. d) to the left and downward
  105. The syndrome hypertrophy and dilatation of the right atrium is detected on an electrocardiogram:
  106. a) P-mitrale
  107. b) P-pulmonale
  108. c) P-cardiale
  109. d) P-aortale
  110. In the sinus tachycardia heart rate within 1 minute:
  111. a) less than 60
  112. b) 60-90
  113. c) 90-160
  114. d) 160-240
  115. e) more than 240
  116. The sinus bradycardia –is a slowing of the heart rate in 1 minute less than:
  117. a) 30
  118. b) 40
  119. c) 50
  120. d) 60
  121. e) 90
  122. In supraventricular extrasystoliaP wave on electrocardiogram is:
  123. a) absent
  124. b) instead wave F
  125. c) instead wave f
  126. d) to present complex QRS
  127. In supraventricular extrasystoliathe complex QRS on electrocardiogram is:
  128. a) absent
  129. b) non-extended and not deformed
  130. c) expanded and deformed
  131. d) is not regular
  132. If ventricular extrasystoliaP wave on electrocardiogram is:
  133. a) absent
  134. b) instead wave F
  135. c) instead wave f
  136. d) to present complex QRS
  137. If ventricular extrasystoliathe complex QRS on electrocardiogram is:
  138. a) absent
  139. b) non-extended and not deformed
  140. c) expanded and deformed
  141. d) is not regular
  142. In the sinus tachycardia heart rate within 1 minute:
  143. a) 90-160
  144. b) 160-240
  145. c) 240-350
  146. d) more than 350
  147. In paroxysmal tachycardia, heart rate within 1 minute:
  148. a) 90-160
  149. b) 160-240
  150. c) 240-350
  151. d) more than 350
  152. In atrial fibrillation pulse deficit is detected when the heart rate is:
  153. a) less than 60 in 1 minute
  154. b) from 60 to 90 in 1 minute
  155. c) more than 90 in 1 minute
  156. d) regardless of heart rate
  157. In atrial fibrillation, the specific clinical sign is:
  158. a) tachycardia
  159. b) bradycardia
  160. c) pulse deficit
  161. d) at the end of the attack polyuria
  162. e) Brady-tachycardia episodes
  163. The most specific sign of atrial fibrillation on the electrocardiogram is:
  164. a) the absence of P wave
  165. b) the wave F (f) instead of P waves
  166. c) different intervals R-R
  167. d) delta waves
  168. The patient noted the absence of P wave on electrocardiogram, instead wave F (f), different intervals RR, irregular QRS. About what kind of arrhythmia do you think:
  169. a) sinus tachycardia
  170. b) paroxysmal tachycardia
  171. c) sinus arrhythmia
  172. d) atrial fibrillation
  173. e) ventricular fibrillation
  174. In ventricular fibrillation on electrocardiogram obtained:
  175. a) the absence of QRS complexes and instead of small and undifferentiated line
  176. b) normal complexes QRS
  177. c) expansion of the complex QRS
  178. d) deformed complexes QRS
  179. In the AV blockade electrocardiographic PQ interval duration in seconds:
  180. a) <0.10
  181. b) <0.12
  182. c) 0,12-0,20
  183. d) > 0.20
  184. The gradual lengthening of the PQ interval with the subsequent loss of QRS on electrocardiogram is characteristic for:
  185. a) intraatrial blockade
  186. b) intraventricular block
  187. c) A-V blockade of the I century
  188. d) A-V block II senior Mobitz I
  189. e) AV block II-senior Mobitz II
  190. The periodic loss of QRS with the constant PQ interval on the electrocardiogram is typical for:
  191. a) intraatrial blockade
  192. b) intraventricular blockade
  193. c) A-V block I st
  194. d) A-V blockade II degreeMobitts I
  195. e) A-V blockade II degree Mobitts II
  196. Classical localization of pain in angina:
  197. a) the left half of the chest
  198. b) the tip of the heart
  199. c) the base of the xiphoid process
  200. d) in the sternum
  201. In angina on the electrocardiogram is noted:
  202. a) ST-segment depression of 0.5 mm or more
  203. b) ST-segment depression of 1.0 mm or more
  204. c) ST segment elevation of 0.5 mm or more
  205. d) ST-segment elevation of 1.0 mm or more
  206. e) pathological tooth Q
  207. In spontaneous angina  on ECG noted:
  208. a) ST-segment depression of 0.5 mm or more
  209. b) ST-segment depression of 1.0 mm or more
  210. c) ST segment elevation of 0.5 mm or more
  211. d) ST-segment elevation of 1.0 mm or more
  212. e) pathological tooth Q
  213. In hypertensionthe sign of heart disease is:
  214. a) aortic valve stenosis
  215. b) the aortic valve
  216. c) the wasting of the left ventricle
  217. d) left ventricular hypertrophy
  218. In hypertensionthe kidney damage manifests itself in the form of:
  219. a) baruria
  220. b) proteinuria of 1 g / l
  221. c) leukocyturia
  222. d) cylindruria
  223. e) proteinuria above 3,5g / l
  224. In hypertension the eye disease manifested as:
  225. a) dilation of the arteries of the fundus
  226. b) narrowing of arterioles of the fundus
  227. c) the restriction venules fundus
  228. d) expansion venules fundus
  229. In hypertension the cardiac complications manifested in the form of:
  230. a) heart disease
  231. b) myocarditis
  232. c) cardiomyopathy
  233. d) angina, myocardial infarction and heart failure
  234. In hypertension complications of the kidneys manifested as:
  235. a) glomerulonephritis
  236. b) pyelonephritis
  237. c) renal amyloidosis
  238. d) urolithiasis
  239. e) glomerulosclerosis with chronic renal failure
  240. In the mitral valve during auscultation I tone on the apex of the heart:
  241. a) attenuated
  242. b) emphasis (flapping)
  243. c) unchanged
  244. d) offline
  245. The insufficiencyof the mitral valve during cardiac auscultation auscultated at the top:
  246. a) diastolic murmur
  247. b) systolic murmur
  248. c) both systolic diastolic murmur
  249. d) continuous systolic noise
  250. In the mitral valve during auscultation weakened tone I shall hear:
  251. a) at the top of the heart
  252. b) in II intercostal space on the left
  253. c) in II intercostal space on the right and at the point Botkin-Erb
  254. d) at the base of the xiphoid process of the sternum
  255. In the mitral valve during auscultation auscultated systolic murmur:
  256. a) in II intercostal space on the left
  257. b) in II intercostal space on the right and at the point Botkin-Erb
  258. c) at the apex of the heart
  259. d) at the base of the xiphoid process of the sternum
  260. In mitral regurgitation on an echocardiogram marked regurgitation of blood:
  261. a) from the left ventricle into the left atrium during diastole
  262. b) from the left ventricle into the left atrium during systole
  263. c) from the right ventricle to the right atrium during diastole
  264. d) from the right ventricle to the right atrium during systole
  265. The patient′s history as a teenager was an episode of arthritis of the knee. Currently, the top auscultation revealed a weakening of the I tone and systolic murmur. What kind of vice you think:
  266. a) mitral stenosis
  267. b) aortic insufficiency
  268. c) aortic stenosis
  269. d) tricuspid valve
  270. e) mitral regurgitation
  271. The patient during auscultation at the apex determined by the weakening of the tone I and systolic murmur and a history of frequent sore throats. Your diagnosis:
  272. a) mitral stenosis
  273. b) aortic insufficiency
  274. c) aortic stenosis
  275. d) mitral insufficiency
  276. e) the tricuspid valve
  277. The patient during auscultation at the apex determined by the weakening of the I tone and systolic murmur, and echocardiogram shortening mitral valve regurgitation of blood from the left ventricle into the left atrium during systole. Your diagnosis is:
  278. a) mitral stenosis
  279. b) mitral insufficiency
  280. c) aortic stenosis
  281. d) aortic insufficiency
  282. e) the tricuspid valve
  283. In mitral stenosis during auscultation I tone on the apex of the heart:
  284. a) attenuated
  285. b) emphasis (flapping)
  286. c) unchanged
  287. d) offline
  288. In mitral stenosis during the auscultation at the apex of the heart auscultated:
  289. a) systolic murmur
  290. b) diastolic murmur
  291. c) both systolic diastolic murmur
  292. d) continuous systolic noise
  293. In mitral stenosis during auscultation reinforced (clapping) I tone is heard:
  294. a) at the apex of the heart
  295. b) in II intercostal space on the left
  296. c) in II intercostal space on the right and at the point Botkin-Erb
  297. d) at the base of the xiphoid process of the sternum
  298. In mitral stenosis during auscultation diastolic murmur is heard:
  299. a) in the apex of the heart
  300. b) in II intercostal space on the left
  301. c) in II intercostal space on the right and at the point Botkin-Erb
  302. d) on the basis of the xiphoid process of the sternum
  303. In mitral stenosis during auscultation auscultated III tone which is called:
  304. a) the pathological
  305. b) extension or "tone of mitral valve opening"
  306. c) the mitral
  307. d) pulmonary
  308. In mitral stenosis during auscultation at the apex of the heart is listened tripartite rhythm, called:
  309. a) the "pendulum" rhythm "
  310. b) "gallop"
  311. c) "the rhythm of quail"
  312. d) "embryonic" rhythm
  313. The patient at the apex auscultation revealed I emphasis tone, III extension tone and diastolic murmur. In the history 3 years ago, there was an episode of arthritis of the knee. What kind of heart defect you think:
  314. a) mitral stenosis
  315. b) aortic insufficiency
  316. c) aortic stenosis
  317. d) tricuspid valve
  318. e) mitral regurgitation
  319. The patient has a history of frequent sore throats, and is currently at the top of auscultation determined emphasis (clapping) I tone, additional tone of mitral valve opening and diastolic murmur. Your diagnosis:
  320. a) aortic insufficiency
  321. b) mitral stenosis
  322. c) aortic stenosis
  323. d) mitral insufficiency
  324. e) the tricuspid valve
  325. The young woman during auscultation found at the top of the amplified (clapping) I note, additional tone of mitral valve opening and diastolic murmur, and echocardiogram thickening and fusion of the leaflets of the mitral valve. Your diagnosis:
  326. a) the tricuspid valve
  327. b) mitral insufficiency
  328. c) aortic stenosis
  329. d) aortic insufficiency
  330. e) mitral stenosis
  331. In aortic insufficiency during auscultation II tone in II intercostal space on the right and at the point Botkin-Erb is:
  332. a) emphasis (accent)
  333. b) unchanged
  334. c) weakened until its absence
  335. d) saved
  336. In aortic insufficiency during auscultation in II intercostal space on the right and at the point Botkin-Erb listened:
  337. a) systolic murmur
  338. b) diastolic murmur
  339. c) both systolic and diastolic murmur
  340. d) continuous systolic noise
  341. In aortic insufficiency during auscultation auscultated easing II tone:
  342. a) at the top of the heart
  343. b) in II intercostal space on the left
  344. c) in II intercostal space on the right and at the point Botkin-Erb
  345. d) on the basis of the xiphoid process of the sternum
  346. In aortic insufficiency during auscultation diastolic murmur auscultated:
  347. a) in the apex of the heart
  348. b) in II intercostal space on the left
  349. c) in II intercostal space on the right and at the point Botkin-Erb
  350. d) on the basis of the xiphoid process of the sternum
  351. During the femoral artery auscultation revealed a double Traube tone and dual noise Vinogradova-Dyuraze. What kind of a syndrome endocardiallesion in question:
  352. a) mitral stenosis
  353. b) mitral insufficiency
  354. c) aortic stenosis
  355. d) aortic insufficiency
  356. e) failure of the tricuspid valve.
  357. In aortic regurgitation diastolic blood pressure:
  358. a) is increased
  359. b) decreased down to 0
  360. c) normal
  361. d) equals the systolic
  362. Under what form the endocardial lesions syndrome marked regurgitation on an echocardiogram of blood from the aorta into the left ventricle during diastole:
  363. a) mitral stenosis
  364. b) mitral insufficiency
  365. c) aortic stenosis
  366. d) aortic insufficiency
  367. e) failure of the tricuspid valve
  368. The patient in II intercostal space on the right and at the point Botkin-Erb auscultation revealed a weakening II tone and diastolic murmur. The history after extraction for 2 months, low-grade fever worried. What kind of vice you think:
  369. a) mitral stenosis
  370. b) aortic insufficiency
  371. c) aortic stenosis
  372. d) tricuspid valve
  373. e) mitral regurgitation
  374. The patient has a history of an episode of arthritis of large joints and frequent sore throats, and now auscultation in II intercostal space on the right and at the point Botkin-Erb identified easing II tone and diastolic murmur. Your diagnosis:
  375. a) aortic insufficiency
  376. b) mitral stenosis
  377. c) aortic stenosis
  378. d) mitral insufficiency
  379. e) the tricuspid valve
  380. A pregnant woman during auscultation in II intercostal space on the right and at the point Botkin-Erb identified easing II tone and diastolic murmur, and a history of episodes of acute rheumatic fever. Your diagnosis:
  381. a) the tricuspid valve
  382. b) mitral insufficiency
  383. c) aortic stenosis
  384. d) aortic insufficiency
  385. e) mitral stenosis
  386. In aortic stenosis during auscultation II tone in II intercostal space to the right of the sternum at the point Botkin-Erb is:
  387. a) attenuated
  388. b) emphasis (flapping)
  389. c) unchanged
  390. d) offline
  391. In aortic stenosis during auscultation in II intercostal space to the right of the sternum at the point Botkin-Erb auscultated:
  392. a) systolic murmur
  393. b) diastolic murmur
  394. c) both systolic and diastolic murmur
  395. d) continuous systolic noise
  396. In aortic stenosis auscultated systolic murmur:
  397. a) in the apex of the heart
  398. b) in II intercostal space on the left
  399. c) in II intercostal space on the right and at the point Botkin-Erb
  400. d) on the basis of the xiphoid process of the sternum
  401. At what a syndrome of defeat endocardial systolic murmur conducted on the carotid artery:
  402. a) mitral stenosis
  403. b) mitral insufficiency
  404. c) aortic stenosis
  405. d) aortic insufficiency
  406. e) failure of the tricuspid valve
  407. On auscultation the patient in II intercostal space on the right and at the point Botkin-Erb identified easing II tone and systolic murmur. What kind of heart defect you think:
  408. a) mitral stenosis
  409. b) aortic insufficiency
  410. c) aortic stenosis
  411. d) tricuspid valve
  412. e) mitral regurgitation
  413. Elderly patients on an echocardiogram revealed the phenomenon of aortic atherosclerosis, and auscultation in II intercostal space on the right and at the point Botkin-Erb identified weakening II tone and systolic murmur. Your diagnosis:
  414. a) aortic insufficiency
  415. b) aortic stenosis
  416. c) mitral stenosis
  417. d) mitral insufficiency
  418. e) the tricuspid valve
  419. The syndrome of heart failure, primarily due to a violation of the following cardiac function:
  420. a) automatism
  421. b) excitability
  422. c) conductivity
  423. d) contractility
  424. The syndrome of acute left ventricular heart failure (pulmonary edema) during auscultation revealed:
  425. a) dry wheezing
  426. b) sonorous wet finely wheezing
  427. c) medium and large-bubbling crackles
  428. d) nonsonorous moist finely wheezing
  429. e) pleural rub
  430. For a variant of the syndrome of heart failure characterized by an attack of inspiratory dyspnea, orthopnea position, noisy bubbling breath, the allocation of frothy sputum, nonosonorous moist micro bubbling wheezing in lungs:
  431. a) acute left ventricular
  432. b) chronic left ventricular
  433. c) acute right ventricular
  434. d) chronic right ventricular
  435. The syndrome of acute right heart failure is characterized by the rapid development of:
  436. a) inspiratory dyspnea turning into asthma
  437. b) cough with frothy sputum
  438. c) swelling of feet and legs
  439. d) the provisions of orthopnea
  440. Acute (for a few minutes, and seconds) development of swelling of feet and legs, diffuse cyanosis and swollen neck veins typical of the kind of syndrome following heart failure:
  441. a) acute left ventricular
  442. b) chronic left ventricular
  443. c) acute right ventricular
  444. d) chronic right ventricular
  445. Acutely evolved hepatomegaly, ascites and anasarca are characteristic of the following type syndrome of heart failure:
  446. a) acute left ventricular
  447. b) chronic left ventricular
  448. c) acute right ventricular
  449. d) chronic right ventricular
  450. Acutely evolved hydrothorax and hydropericardium characteristic of the following type syndrome of heart failure:
  451. a) acute left ventricular
  452. b) chronic left ventricular
  453. c) acute right ventricular
  454. d) chronic right ventricular heart failure
  455. Slowly progressive inspiratory dyspnea on nat. load, then alone is characteristic of the following type syndrome of heart failure:
  456. a) acute left ventricular
  457. b) chronic left ventricular
  458. c) acute right ventricular
  459. d) chronic right ventricular heart failure
  460. The appearance of tachycardia, dyspnea and inspiratory acrocyanosis first during exercise and later at rest is typical for the following type syndrome of heart failure:
  461. a) acute left ventricular
  462. b) chronic left ventricular
  463. c) acute right ventricular
  464. d) chronic right ventricular
  465. For a long time the detection of inspiratory dyspnea and non sonorous crepitations in the lower lung auscultation is typical for the following type syndrome of heart failure:
  466. a) acute left ventricular
  467. b) chronic left ventricular
  468. c) acute right ventricular
  469. d) chronic right ventricular
  470. Slowly (over months and years) development of swelling of feet and legs occurs later in the form of the syndrome of heart failure:
  471. a) acute left ventricular
  472. b) chronic left ventricular
  473. c) acute right ventricular
  474. d) chronic right ventricular