Back

Exam tests Clinical Immunology

 

  1. Bronchial asthma - is:
  2. a) an acute inflammatory disease of the respiratory tract
  3. b) a chronic inflammatory disease of the respiratory tract
  4. c) acute inflammatory disease of the alveoli of the lungs
  5. d) a chronic inflammatory disease of the lung alveoli
  6. In the development of asthma has major importance:
  7. a) infectious bronchitis
  8. b) bronchial hypersensitivity and bronchial obstruction
  9. c) hereditary anatomical defect of the bronchi
  10. d) multiple sclerosis bronchi
  11. Asthma is clinically manifested as:
  12. a) inspiratory attacks of dyspnea
  13. b) a sudden episode of coughing with sputum "full mouth"
  14. c) repeated attacks of expiratory breathlessness
  15. d) attack of thoracic pain
  16. In bronchial asthma bronchial obstruction:
  17. a) is reversible
  18. b) it is irreversible
  19. c) caused by anatomical defects of the bronchi
  20. d) due to congenital stenosis of the bronchus
  21. One of their acute asthma symptoms are episodes of appearance:
  22. a) inspiratory suffocation
  23. b) expiratory breathlessness
  24. c) wet wheezing
  25. d) pleural friction noise
  26. One of the acute asthma symptoms is episodes of:
  27. a) dry rhonchi
  28. b) crepitation
  29. c) wet rhonchi
  30. d) pleural friction sound
  31. In international practice, asthma is called:
  32. a) atopy
  33. b) pulmonary edema
  34. c) asthma
  35. d) aphthae
  36. Predisposing factors of asthma include:
  37. a) frequent hypothermia
  38. b) cold climate
  39. c) a history of chronic bronchitis
  40. d) heredity, bronchial hypersensitivity and atopy
  41. The main type of allergens in asthma is:
  42. a) domestic (especially house dust)
  43. b) epidermal
  44. c) Insect
  45. d) pollen
  46. The development of nocturnal attacks of breathlessness of asthma is usually associated with:
  47. a) household dust
  48. b) pollen
  49. c) the prolonged immobility
  50. d) horizontal position of the patient
  51. What kind of medicine cause prostaglandin induced asthma?:
  52. a) antibiotics
  53. b) non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs
  54. c) narcotic analgesics
  55. d) bronchodilators
  56. One harbinger of asthma attacks is:
  57. a) cough
  58. b) cough with purulent sputum
  59. c) cardialgia
  60. d) tachycardia
  61. Harbingers of asthma attacks include:
  62. a) dry mouth
  63. b) dry eyes
  64. c) the allocation of bleeding from the nose
  65. d) release of abundant watery secretion from the nose
  66. Harbingers of asthma attacks include the following:
  67. a) hiccupping
  68. b) fever
  69. c) sprue
  70. d) nausea
  71. e) sneezing
  72. Excessive release of watery secretion from the nose, sneezing and cough in patients with asthma are:
  73. a) precursors of the disease
  74. b) classical clinical signs of disease
  75. c) equivalents of expiratory breathlessness
  76. d) signs of regression of disease
  77. The classic clinical feature of asthma is:
  78. a) attack of expiratory breathlessness
  79. b) attack of inspiratory suffocation
  80. c) episodes of expiratory dyspnea
  81. d) episodes of shortness of breath
  82. e) episodes of paroxysmal dry cough
  83. The attack of expiratory choking with asthma is:
  84. a) a harbinger of disease
  85. b) the classical clinical signs of disease
  86. c) equivalents expiratory breathlessness
  87. d) signs of regression of disease
  88. One of equivalents expiratory breathlessness in asthma episodes are:
  89. a) inspiratory dyspnea
  90. b) expiratory dyspnea
  91. c) Coronary pain
  92. d) distant dry wheezing
  93. For one of the equivalents expiratory breathlessness in asthma episodes include:
  94. a) stop breathing
  95. b) to facilitate breathing
  96. c) difficulty breathing
  97. d) stridor
  98. Equivalents expiratory breathlessness in asthma episodes are:
  99. a) paroxysmal dry cough
  100. b) cough with mucopurulent sputum
  101. c) cough with discharge of purulent sputum "full mouth"
  102. d) hemoptysis
  103. Episodes expiratory wheezing, shortness of breath and paroxysmal dry cough in patients with asthma are:
  104. a) precursors of the disease
  105. b) classical clinical signs of disease
  106. c) equivalents expiratory breathlessness
  107. d) signs of regression of disease
  108. During the attack expiratory breathlessness in patients with asthma observed:
  109. a) the active position
  110. b) the acquired sitting position called orthopnea
  111. c) acquired position on his side
  112. d) acquired Bozeman′s position
  113. In an episode of expiratory breathlessness in patients with bronchial asthma chest is in:
  114. a) the position of maximum inspiration
  115. b) the position of maximum exhalation
  116. c) collapsed
  117. d) paralysis
  118. During the attack expiratory breathlessness in patients with bronchial asthma auxiliary respiratory muscles:
  119. a) paralyzed
  120. b) atrophied
  121. c) not involved in breathing
  122. d) may be involved in breathing
  123. In episode of expiratory breathlessness in patients with bronchial asthma neck veins:
  124. a) cannot be seen
  125. b) strongly pulsate
  126. c) collapsed
  127. d) swollen
  128. In bronchial asthma in the phase of manifistation (during the attack expiratory breathlessness) sputum is:
  129. a) allocated "full mouth"
  130. b) stands out easily and in large quantities
  131. c) not allocated or allocated with difficulty
  132. d) begins to move away easily
  133. In bronchial asthma in the phase manifestation (during the attack expiratory breathlessness) allocated sputum:
  134. a) purulent "full mouth"
  135. b) mucopurulent in large quantities
  136. c) bloody
  137. d) lean, difficult to release viscous mucous sputum in small (scanty) amount
  138. Patients with asthma has difficult removed scanty viscous mucous sputum in small (scanty) amounts released:
  139. a) before attack of asthma
  140. b) in the beginning of an asthma attack
  141. c) in the midst of an asthma attack
  142. d) at the end of an asthma attack
  143. The main clinical manifestation of asthma is:
  144. a) attack expiratory breathlessness
  145. b) choking of inspiratory character
  146. c) a permanent productive cough
  147. d) dry cough in the morning
  148. e) exertional dyspnea
  149. During an attack of asthma on lung palpation vocal fremitus is:
  150. a) normal
  151. b) strengthened
  152. c) weakened on both sides
  153. d) weakened on one side
  154. During an attack of asthma on lung percussion is:
  155. a) a clear lung sounds
  156. b) dullness of pulmonary sound
  157. c) a dull sound
  158. d) box-like sound or lung sounds with a touch of boxed
  159. e) tympanic sound
  160. During an attack of asthma lung percussion over the lower border of lungs:
  161. a) are descended
  162. b) raised upwardly
  163. c) normal
  164. d) are not available
  165. The characteristic feature of bronchial asthma attack auscultation is:
  166. a) hard breathing with prolonged inhalation
  167. b) hard breathing with prolonged exhalation
  168. c) abnormal bronchial breathing
  169. d) amphoric breath
  170. One of the characteristic features of bronchial asthma attack auscultation is:
  171. a) dry rhonchi
  172. b) wet finely rhonchi
  173. c) large and sonorous moist bubbling rale
  174. d) crepitus
  175. During an attack of asthma by auscultation dry rhonchi detected:
  176. a) afew
  177. b) dispersed in a small quantities
  178. c) localized in large quantities
  179. d) dispersed in a large amount (massive rhonchi)
  180. Scattered dry rhonchi in significant numbers (massive rhonchi) are heard, mostly:
  181. a) at inhalation
  182. b) at expiration
  183. c) in seated position
  184. d) in standing position
  185. A specific auscultatory feature of asthma is:
  186. a) massive dry rhonchi
  187. b) wet fine rhonchi
  188. c) wet medium to large bubbling rale
  189. d) crepitus
  190. What auscultatory signs are characteristic of asthma?:
  191. a) hard breathing, dry rales of  different pitch
  192. b) wet variegated rales, dull heart sounds, arrhythmia
  193. c) bronchial breathing
  194. d) crepitus
  195. e) fine crackles
  196. Recovery phase of asthma is characterized by:
  197. a) the beginning of easily release of sputum and breathing becomes easier
  198. b) the emergence of equivalents of asthma attack
  199. c) status asthmaticus
  200. d) the emergence of new asthma attacks
  201. A sign of the recovery of an attack of asthma is:
  202. a) the termination of sputum
  203. b) allocation of difficult released viscous sputum
  204. c) releasing of easily removable liquid sputum
  205. d) the allocation of bloody sputum
  206. Patients with bronchial asthma in 10 minutes from the start of an asthma attack begins to move away easily sputum and breathing becomes easier. What it shows:
  207. a) the transition to the asthmatic status
  208. b) the emergence of an asthma attack equivalents
  209. c) the beginning of the next asthma attack
  210. d) the development recovery phase
  211. In inter episodic period in patients with bronchial asthma clinical symptoms of the disease are:
  212. a) mild
  213. b) pronounced
  214. c) are not available
  215. d) appear during exercise and relieves at rest
  216. In the interepisodic period in patients with bronchial asthma during auscultation may appear dry rhonchi when:
  217. a) forced breathing
  218. b) physical activity
  219. c) psychomotor excitation
  220. d) breath-hold
  221. In the inter episodic period in patients with bronchial asthma during auscultation may appear dry wheeze:
  222. a) in the upright position of the patient
  223. b) the horizontal position of the patient
  224. c) at position orthopnea
  225. d) straining the patient
  226. In the inter episodic period in patients with bronchial asthma during auscultation the appearance of dry wheezing breath and forced in a horizontal position of the patient due to:
  227. a) the presence of latent bronchospasm
  228. b) anatomical defect of the bronchi
  229. c) congenital stenosis of the bronchus
  230. d) accumulation of mucus in the bronchi.
  231. In the analysis of sputum to bronchial asthma is characterized by a large number of:
  232. a) hemoglobin
  233. b) RBCs
  234. c) leukocytes
  235. d) of eosinophils
  236. e) platelets
  237. A specific feature of asthma in the analysis of sputum is the detection of:
  238. a) a large number of red blood cells
  239. b) a large number of white blood cells
  240. c) Charcot-Leyden crystals and spirals of Kurschman
  241. d) the elastic fibers.
  242. The characteristic features of asthma in the analysis of sputum is the detection of:
  243. a) a large number of eosinophils, Charcot-Leyden crystals and spirals of Kurschman
  244. b) elastic fibers
  245. c) more than 100 thousand. microbial cells in 1 ml of sputum
  246. d) atypical cells
  247. Increased class of immunoglobulin levels typical for asthma:
  248. a) IgA
  249. b) IgM
  250. c) IgG
  251. d) IgE
  252. e) IgF
  253. For asthma in the chest radiograph is characterized as follows:
  254. a) homogeneous macrofocal darkness
  255. b) pulmonary atelectasis
  256. c) the cavity with the horizontal level of the liquid
  257. d) the lack of specific symptoms
  258. The normal peak flow rate during peak flow-metry is:
  259. a) ≥50% of predicted
  260. b) 60-80% of predicted
  261. c) ≥80% of predicted
  262. d) ≥100% of predicted
  263. In less severe asthma in the inter-episodic period when peak flow rate is:
  264. a) the norm
  265. b) less than 100% of predicted
  266. c) 60-80% of predicted
  267. d) below 60% of predicted
  268. In mid-severe bronchial asthma in the inter-episodic period when peak flow rate is as follows:
  269. a) normal
  270. b) less than 100% of predicted
  271. c) 60-80% of predicted
  272. d) below 60% of predicted
  273. In severe asthma in the inter-episodic period when peak flow rate is as follows:
  274. a) normal
  275. b) less than 100% of predicted
  276. c) 60-80% of predicted
  277. d) below 60% of predicted
  278. In patients with mild asthma in the inter-episodic period, spirography value of forced expiratory volume (FEV1) is as follows:
  279. a) normal
  280. b) less than 100% of predicted
  281. c) 60-80% of predicted
  282. d) below 60% of predicted
  283. Patients with moderate-severe asthma in the inter-episodic period, spirography value of forced expiratory volume is as follows:
  284. a) normal
  285. b) less than 100% of predicted
  286. c) 60-80% of predicted
  287. d) below 60% of predicted
  288. Patients with severe asthma in the inter-episodic period, spirography value of forced expiratory volume is as follows:
  289. a) normal
  290. b) less than 100% of predicted
  291. c) 60-80% of predicted
  292. d) below 60% of predicted
  293. For asthma while acting bronchodilator tests is characteristic increase in peak expiratory flow more than:
  294. a) 10%
  295. b) 20%
  296. c) 30%
  297. d) 50%
  298. For asthma during a typical bronchodilator test forced expiratory volume (FEV1) improvement of more than:
  299. a) 2%
  300. b) 12%
  301. c) 22%
  302. d) 32%
  303. In bronchial asthma during bronchodilator test increase in peak expiratory flow rate> 20% and forced inspiratory volume> 12% indicates:
  304. a) irreversible airflow obstruction
  305. b) incomplete reversibility of airflow obstruction
  306. c) high reversibility of airflow obstruction
  307. d) respiratory failure
  308. Patient K, 43 years walking briskly 15-20 minutes there is a dry hacking cough, which then goes into an attack of breathlessness with expiratory wheezing. About what form of asthma in question?:
  309. a) a prostaglandin asthma
  310. b) atopic asthma
  311. c) asthma physical effort
  312. d) occupational asthma
  313. The main (basic) type of therapy is bronchial asthma attack (acute stage) are:
  314. a) an inhaled long-acting β2- adrenostimulators
  315. b) inhaled corticosteroids
  316. c) methylxanthines
  317. d) steroids per os
  318. d) inhaled anticholinergics
  319. Inhaled steroids in bronchial asthma are used:
  320. a) only for the prevention of asthma attacks
  321. b) for relief of asthma attacks
  322. c) for the prevention of asthma attacks, and for their relief
  323. d) as a symptomatic therapy
  324. In bronchial asthma used inhaled steroids:
  325. a) during asthma attacks
  326. b) during episodes of breathlessness equivalents
  327. c) a reverse phase of asthma
  328. d) in the interictal period
  329. Inhaled steroids in the prevention of asthma attacks of asthma are drugs of:
  330. a) 1st line
  331. b) 2nd line
  332. c) 3rd line
  333. d) additional (secondary) values
  334. Before use of inhaled glucocorticosteroids in asthma must:
  335. a) the patient to stop and sit down
  336. b) to rinse the throat and mouth with warm water
  337. c) to conduct inhalation β2-agonists short-acting
  338. d) introduce methylxanthines (aminophylline) in bolus form
  339. Beclomethasone (best known inhaled corticosteroids) for the prevention of asthma attack is assigned to 1-2 inhalations:
  340. a) only 1 per day
  341. b) from 1 to 4 times per day
  342. c) from 4 to 6 times a day
  343. d) from 5 to 10 times per day
  344. Beclomethasone (best known inhaled corticosteroids) for the prevention of asthma attack is assigned from 1 to 4 times a day:
  345. a) 1-2 inhalations
  346. b) 3-4 inhalations
  347. c) 5-6 inhalations
  348. d) only one inhalation
  349. After application of inhaled glucocorticosteroids in asthma is recommended:
  350. a) a glass of water
  351. b) to rinse the throat and mouth with warm water
  352. c) close the mouth for 1 minute breathe through the nose
  353. d) not to stand for 1 minute
  354. Inhaled β2- adrenostimulators short-acting bronchial asthma are used:
  355. a) for the prevention of asthma attacks
  356. b) for relief of asthma attacks
  357. c) for the prevention of asthma attacks, and for their relief
  358. d) as the basic pathogenetic therapy
  359. Inhaled short-acting β2- adrenostimulators in relieving asthma attack asthma drugs are:
  360. a) 1st line
  361. b) 2-th line
  362. c) the third line
  363. d) additional (secondary) values
  364. Salbutamol (best known β2- inhaled short-acting agonists) during an asthma attack at a time recommended as:
  365. a) 1 inhalation
  366. b) 2 inhalations
  367. c) 3 inhalation
  368. d) 4 inhalation
  369. Inhaled β2- adrenostimulators long-acting bronchial asthma are used to:
  370. a) for the prevention of asthma attacks
  371. b) for relief of asthma attacks
  372. c) for the prevention of asthma attacks, and for their relief
  373. d) as the basic pathogenetic therapy
  374. Inhaled β2- adrenostimulators long action in the prevention of asthma attacks of asthma drugs are:
  375. a) 1st line
  376. b) 2-th line
  377. c) the third line
  378. d) additional (secondary) values
  379. Salmeterol (best known β2- agonists inhaled long-acting) for the prevention of an asthma attack at a time recommended as:
  380. a) 1 inhalation once a day
  381. b) 1 inhalation twice a day
  382. c) 2  inhalations once a day
  383. d) 2 inhalations twice a day
  384. Parenteral methylxanthines (aminophylline / aminophylline in bolus) in bronchial asthma are used to:
  385. a) for the prevention of asthma attacks
  386. b) for relief of asthma attacks
  387. c) for the prevention of asthma attacks, and for their relief
  388. d) as the basic pathogenetic therapy
  389. Parenteral methylxanthines (aminophylline / eupylline  I/V bolus) in relieving asthma attack are drugs of:
  390. a) 1st line
  391. b) 2-th line
  392. c) 3rd line
  393. d) additional (secondary) values
  394. When cupping choking asthma parenteral methylxanthines (aminophylline / euphylline I/V bolus) are used only:
  395. a) in a hospital
  396. b) ambulance
  397. c) in combination with an inhaled β2-adrenostimulyatorov short-acting
  398. d) in the absence (or ineffectiveness) of inhaled β2-agonists of short action
  399. Parenteral steroids (prednisone I/V bolus) in bronchial asthma are used to:
  400. a) for the prevention of asthma attacks
  401. b) for relief of asthma attacks
  402. c) for the prevention of asthma attacks, and for its relief
  403. d) as a symptomatic therapy
  404. Parenteral steroids (prednisone I/V bolus) in relieving asthma attack asthma drugs are:
  405. a) 1st line
  406. b) 2nd line
  407. c) 3rd line
  408. d) additional (secondary) values
  409. When curing choking asthma, steroids (prednisone I/V bolus) are used only:
  410. a) in a hospital
  411. b) ambulance
  412. c) in combination with an inhaled β2-adrenostimulators short-acting
  413. d) when ineffectiveness of inhaled β2-agonists and short-acting aminophylline
  414. Oral steroids (prednisone tablets) for asthma are used:
  415. a) for the prevention of asthma attacks
  416. b) for relief of asthma attacks
  417. c) for the prevention of asthma attacks, and for their relief
  418. d) as a symptomatic therapy
  419. To relieve asthma attacks in bronchial asthma, oral steroids (prednisone tablets) are used in:
  420. a) small doses
  421. b) moderate doses
  422. c) high doses
  423. d) dose of pulse therapy
  424. For the prevention of asthma attacks in bronchial asthma, oral steroids (prednisone tablets) are used in:
  425. a) small doses
  426. b) moderate doses
  427. c) high doses
  428. d) dose of pulse therapy
  429. The recommended regimen for relief of mild and moderate exacerbation (attack) of asthma β2-adrenostimulators short acting is:
  430. a) 1 inhalation every 10 minutes for 1 hour
  431. b) 2 inhalation every 20 minutes for 1 hour
  432. c) 1 inhalation once
  433. d) 2 inhalation once
  434. Recommended dose of the 2.4% - 10ml aminophylline (aminophylline) for the relief of mild and moderate exacerbation (attack) asthma is:
  435. a) single
  436. b) twice with an interval of 5 minutes
  437. c) every 10 minutes for 1 hour
  438. d) every 20 minutes for 1 hour
  439. For relief of mild and moderate exacerbation (attack) of asthma steroids (prednisone I/V bolus or tablets) are used in the absence of the effect of albuterol or aminophylline for:
  440. a) 1-2 minutes
  441. b) 5-10 minutes
  442. c) 10-20 minutes
  443. d) for 30-60 minutes
  444. For relief of mild and moderate exacerbation (attack) of asthma steroids are administered:
  445. a) once
  446. b) twice every 5 minutes
  447. c) every 10 minutes for 1 hour
  448. d) every 20 minutes for 1 hour
  449. For relief of mild and moderate exacerbation (attack) asthma parenteral corticosteroids (prednisolone I/V bolus) is administered a single dose of:
  450. a) 2.5 mg
  451. b) 10-30 mg
  452. c) 30-60 mg
  453. d) 90-120 mg
  454. For relief of mild and moderate exacerbation (attack), asthma, oral steroids (prednisone tablets) are used at a dose of:
  455. a) 2.5 mg
  456. b) 10-30 mg
  457. c) 30-60 mg
  458. d) 90-120 mg
  459. Acute interstitial pneumonitis - a diffuse inflammatory infiltration of the alveoli, leading to:
  460. a) broncho-spasm and resistant to treat broncho-obstructive syndrome
  461. b) pus formation in alveoli and resistant to the treat gangrene of the lung
  462. c) the progressive fibrosis of the lungs and resistant to the treat respiratory failure
  463. In the pathogenesis of idiopathic fibrosing alveolitis great importance is of pulmonary autoantigen such as:
  464. a) autologous IgE
  465. b) spiral of Kurshman
  466. c) lung tissue protein molecular weight 70-90 kDa
  467. d) elements of the cell wall alveolocytes
  468. Iidiopathic fibrosing alveolitis often suffer from:
  469. a) boys
  470. b) men over 50 years
  471. c) girls
  472. d) women older than 50 years
  473. The most specific sign of idiopathic fibrosing alveolitis is:
  474. a) the shortness of mixed character
  475. b) dyspnea or choking inspiratory character
  476. c) shortness of breath or choking expiratory character
  477. d) chest pain
  478. The course of idiopathic fibrosing alveolitis progressing with the inevitable development of:
  479. a) respiratory failure with a good effect on the treatment
  480. b) respiratory failure refractory to treatment
  481. c) heart failure with good effect of the treatment
  482. d) heart failure refractory to treatment
  483. Acute interstitial pneumonitis maintenance dose of 10 mg prednisolone daily per os recommended for:
  484. a) 1 week
  485. b) 1 month
  486. c) 1 year old
  487. d) throughout life
  488. When acute interstitial pneumonitis (in the process of interstitial fibrosis) D-penicillamine is appointed for:
  489. a) 1-2 weeks
  490. b) 1-2 months
  491. c) 1-2 years
  492. d) throughout life
  493. Idiopathic (autoimmune), myocarditis - an inflammatory disease of the myocardium:
  494. a) viral etiology
  495. b) microbial etiology
  496. c) unknown etiology
  497. d) neoplastic etiology
  498. When idiopathic (autoimmune) myocarditis occurs:
  499. a) the development of cardiomegaly, rhythm and conduction disturbances and heart failure
  500. b) heart disease
  501. c) myocardial infarction
  502. d) cardiosclerosis
  503. The main link in the pathogenesis of idiopathic (autoimmune) myocarditis is:
  504. a) the formation of autoantibodies to cardiomyocytes
  505. b) immune deficiency
  506. c) the destruction of the valves
  507. d) the formation of atheromatous plaques in the arteries
  508. For idiopathic (autoimmune) myocarditis is characterized by cardiomegaly as follows:
  509. a) the dilatation of the left and right atria
  510. b) left ventricular dilatation
  511. c) the dilatation of the right ventricle
  512. d) total
  513. The main type of pathogenetic treatment of idiopathic (autoimmune) myocarditis is:
  514. a) the use of NSAIDs
  515. b) corticosteroids
  516. c) coronary artery bypass grafting
  517. d) heart transplantation
  518. When ulcerative colitis is marked loose stools:
  519. a) 2 or more times per day
  520. b) up to 4 or more times per day
  521. c) up to 5 or more times per day
  522. d) up to 10 or more times per day
  523. When ulcerative colitis is found in the feces:
  524. a) hydrochloric acid
  525. b) worms
  526. c) blood, pus and mucus a lot
  527. d) pyogenic bacteria
  528. For ulcerative colitis is characterized by:
  529. a) pappy stool and stool frequency 2-4 times a day
  530. b) constipation
  531. c) stool consisting of pus, mucus and blood and stool frequency of 10-20 per day
  532. d) poly-faecaly
  533. Stool frequency of 10-20 per day, tenesmus frequent, chair not containing faeces and consisting of pus, mucus and blood characteristic:
  534. a) chronic enteritis
  535. b) chronic colitis
  536. c) ulcerative colitis
  537. d) chronic pancreatitis
  538. The main basic preparation in the treatment of ulcerative colitis:
  539. a) steroids
  540. b) cytostatic agents
  541. c) preparations containing 5-ASA (sulfasalazine)
  542. d) antibiotics
  543. "Diffuse processes in the liver that lasts more than 6 months, characterized by necrosis of hepatocytes and preserved lobular structure of the liver." This statement is typical for:
  544. a) liver cancer
  545. b) chronic autoimmune hepatitis
  546. c) cirrhosis
  547. d) an acute hepatitis
  548. The main pathogenetic mechanism of chronic autoimmune hepatitis is:
  549. a) the degeneration of hepatocytes
  550. b) malignant transformation of hepatocytes
  551. c) multiple sclerosis and fibrosis of the hepatocytes
  552. d) distruction of the lobular structure of the liver
  553. e) inflammation and necrosis (cytolysis) of hepatocytes
  554. In chronic autoimmune hepatitis size of the liver:
  555. a) increased
  556. b) reduced
  557. c) unchanged
  558. d) greatly reduced
  559. The most frequent symptom is a chronic autoimmune hepatitis:
  560. a) jaundice
  561. b) splenomegaly
  562. c) pain in the right upper quadrant
  563. d) hepatomegaly
  564. Pain in the right upper quadrant of chronic autoimmune hepatitis:
  565. a) constant expression
  566. b) a constant dull pain
  567. c) expressed paroxysmal
  568. d) paroxysmal dull
  569. In chronic autoimmune hepatitis cause pain in the right upper quadrant is:
  570. a) increasing the concentration of bile acids in the blood
  571. b) hepatomegaly
  572. c) inflammation hepatocytes
  573. d) hepatocyte necrosis
  574. In chronic autoimmune hepatitis splenomegaly related to:
  575. a) portal hypertension
  576. b) liver fibrosis
  577. c) a high activity
  578. d) hepatic insufficiency
  579. The cause of jaundice in chronic autoimmune hepatitis is:
  580. a) cytolysis of hepatocytes
  581. b) degeneration of hepatocytes
  582. c) multiple sclerosis hepatocytes
  583. d) portal hypertension
  584. For chronic autoimmune hepatitis is characteristic:
  585. a) hepatomegaly, right upper quadrant pain and constant dull nature and jaundice
  586. b) reducing the size of the liver
  587. c) attacks of severe pain in the right upper quadrant
  588. d) portal hypertension
  589. Haemorrhagic syndrome with chronic autoimmune hepatitis is associated with:
  590. a) portal hypertension
  591. b) liver fibrosis
  592. c) a high activity of the disease
  593. d) hepatic insufficiency
  594. Hormonal disturbance syndrome with chronic autoimmune hepatitis develops in the background:
  595. a) portal hypertension
  596. b) liver fibrosis
  597. c) high disease activity
  598. d) hepatic failure
  599. Hemorrhagic and hormonal disturbance syndromes in chronic autoimmune hepatitis - a manifestation:
  600. a) hepatic insufficiency on the background of the high activity of the disease
  601. b) liver disease in remission of the disease
  602. c) portal hypertension
  603. In chronic autoimmune hepatitis laboratory hepatotropic level of blood enzymes:
  604. a) increases
  605. b) is reduced
  606. c) drastically reduced
  607. d) does not change
  608. A characteristic feature of chronic autoimmune hepatitis is to improve:
  609. a) cardiac enzyme blood
  610. b) hepatotropic blood enzymes
  611. c) blood amylase
  612. d) liver enzyme in the duodenum
  613. Levels of ALT and AST in the blood of chronic autoimmune hepatitis:
  614. a) increase
  615. b) decrease
  616. c) are sharply reduced
  617. d) do not change
  618. Confirmation of cytolysis syndrome in chronic autoimmune hepatitis is:
  619. a) the decrease in ALT and AST
  620. b) increase in ALT and AST
  621. c) increase in indirect and direct bilirubin
  622. d) hypoproteinemia (hypoalbuminemia and hypoprothrombinemia)
  623. Pick biochemical characterization of cytolytic syndrome in autoimmune chronic hepatitis B:
  624. a) improving aminotransaminaz (ALT and AST)
  625. b) an increase in bilirubin
  626. c) increase in cholesterol
  627. d) increase in alkaline phosphatase activity
  628. In chronic autoimmune hepatitis, the most peculiar feature is the laboratory:
  629. a) reduction of AST
  630. b) increasing the ACT
  631. c) a decrease of ALT
  632. d) increase of ALT
  633. In chronic autoimmune hepatitis increases blood levels of:
  634. a) only the direct bilirubin
  635. b) both direct and indirect bilirubin
  636. c) only the direct bilirubin
  637. d) only the unbound bilirubin with glucuronic acid
  638. hyperbilirubinemia in chronic autoimmune hepatitis always combined:
  639. a) increased levels of ALT and AST in the blood
  640. b) with a reduction in ALT and AST blood
  641. c) with increased erythrocyte sedimentation rate
  642. d) with increased levels of ESR
  643. The most specific laboratory signs of chronic autoimmune hepatitis is:
  644. a) reduction of AST
  645. b) increasing the ACT
  646. c) a decrease of ALT
  647. d) increase of ALT
  648. Hypoproteinemia (hypoalbuminemia) and hypoprotrombinemia in chronic autoimmune hepatitis are signs:
  649. a) portal hypertension
  650. b) cytolysis of hepatocytes
  651. c) hepatocyte inflammation
  652. d) hepatocyte sclerosis
  653. e) hepatic failure
  654. During puncture or (laparoscopy) liver biopsy characteristic of chronic autoimmune hepatitis is:
  655. a) the degeneration of hepatocytes
  656. b) necrosis of hepatocytes and preserved lobular structure of the liver
  657. c) fibrosis hepatocytes
  658. d) violation of lobular structure of the liver
  659. Pathogenetic therapy of chronic autoimmune hepatitis is the use of:
  660. a) antibiotics
  661. b) NSAIDs
  662. c) sulfonamides
  663. d) drugs α-interferon
  664. e) corticosteroids and cytotoxic drugs
  665. Sub-acute pathogenesis glomerulonephritis greatest importance antibody:
  666. a) DNA
  667. b) aggregated IgG
  668. c) renal tubule
  669. d) glomerular endothelial glycoprotein GP330
  670. e) glomerular basement membrane
  671. For sub-acute glomerulonephritis specific sign of kidney biopsy is:
  672. a) the degeneration of the glomeruli
  673. b) an inflammation of the glomeruli
  674. c) epithelial proliferation in multiple glomeruli and necrosis of glomerular crescents
  675. d) inflammation and necrosis of the pelvis and cups
  676. The main type of pathogenetic therapy of sub-acute glomerulonephritis is the use of:
  677. a) antibiotics
  678. b) NSAIDs
  679. c) glucocorticosteroids
  680. d) cytostatics
  681. In the treatment of sub-acute glomerulonephritis prednisolone used in therapeutic dose:
  682. a) 10 mg / day orally
  683. b) 20-40 mg / day orally
  684. c) 40-60 mg / day orally
  685. d) 80-100 mg / day orally
  686. In the treatment of sub-acute glomerulonephritis prednisolone used in therapeutic doses:
  687. a) to achieve clinical and laboratory effect
  688. b) to the normalization of body temperature
  689. c) to normalize the function of the kidneys
  690. d) to achieve stable remission
  691.  Autoimmune hemolytic anemia - hemolytic anemia is caused by:
  692. a) iron deficiency
  693. b) vitamin B12 deficiency
  694. c) formation of antibodies to self-antigens erythrocytes
  695. d) the presence of abnormal spherical shapes of red blood cells
  696. When autoimmune hemolytic anemia one of the specific symptoms are:
  697. a) the yellowness of the skin, sclera and mucous membranes
  698. b) pale skin, sclera and mucous membranes
  699. c) a darkening of the skin
  700. d) an intense red color
  701. When autoimmune hemolytic anemia color index:
  702. a) increased
  703. b) increased sharply
  704. c) reduced
  705. d) within the normal range
  706. When autoimmune hemolytic anemia indirect bilirubin levels:
  707. a) increased
  708. b) increased sharply
  709. c) reduced
  710. d) within the normal range
  711. In diabetes type I occurs:
  712. a) the insulin secretion deficiency
  713. b) violation of the insulin action in peripheral tissues
  714. c) an increased synthesis of insulin
  715. d) a sharp increase in insulin secretion
  716. Etiological facto type I diabetes include:
  717. a) viruses and immunogenetic predisposition
  718. b) overeating, excessive carbohydrates
  719. c) obesity
  720. d) cirrhosis
  721. The main pathogenetic mechanism of type I diabetes is:
  722. a) a relative insulin deficiency
  723. b) reduction in the number of insulin receptors in peripheral tissues
  724. c) violation of tissue glucose utilization
  725. d) antibody production and destruction of insulin β-cells of the pancreas
  726. The diagnostic criterion for type I diabetes glucose level is capillary blood glucose:
  727. a) less than 3.0 mmol/l
  728. b) within 3,33-5,55 mmol/l
  729. c) more than 5.55 mmol/l
  730. d) over 6.1 mmol/l
  731. The diagnostic criterion for type I diabetes is a glucose level during the glucose tolerance test:
  732. a) more than 6.1 mmol/l
  733. b) more than 9.9 mmol/l
  734. c) more than 11.1 mmol/l
  735. d) in the range 7,0-11,1 mmol/l
  736. The glucose tolerance test is conducted in order to:
  737. a) determine the dose of insulin
  738. b) determine the dose of oral glucose-lowering drugs
  739. c) differential diagnosis of diabetes and impaired glucose tolerance
  740. d) differential diagnosis of diabetes mellitus type I and II
  741. After the glucose tolerance test, the diagnosis of diabetes is set if the glucose level:
  742. a) is greater than 5.55 mmol/l
  743. b) more than 6.7 mmol/l
  744. c) 7,8-11,0 mmol/l
  745. d) over 11.1 mmol/l
  746. After the glucose tolerance test, diagnosis impaired glucose tolerance is set if the glucose level:
  747. a) is greater than 5.55 mmol/l
  748. b) more than 6.7 mmol/l
  749. c) 7,8-11,1 mmol/l
  750. d) over 11.0 mmol/l
  751. During GTT in the patient after 2 hours the blood glucose level is equal to 12.3 mmol/l, what this shows ?:
  752. a) a normal level of glycemia
  753. b) of the impaired glucose tolerance
  754. c) about diabetes
  755. d) of the complications of diabetes
  756. During the glucose tolerance test, a patient after 2 hours the blood glucose level is equal to 10.2 mmol / l. What this shows?:
  757. a) on a normal level of glycemia
  758. b) of the impaired glucose tolerance
  759. c) about diabetes
  760. d) of the complications of diabetes
  761. During GTT in the patient after 2 hours the blood glucose level is 6.5 mmol / l. What this shows?:
  762. a) on a normal level of glycemia
  763. b) of the impaired glucose tolerance
  764. c) about diabetes
  765. d) of the complications of diabetes
  766. In diabetes type I glycosuria occurs when blood glucose levels:
  767. a) more than 9.9 mmol /l
  768. b) more than 6.1 mmol / l
  769. c) greater than 5.5 mmol / l
  770. d) at any level higher than normal
  771. Easily absorbable carbohydrates (sugar, honey, candies, etc.) in the diet therapy of type I diabetes:
  772. a) be included in a large amount
  773. b) included in a small amount
  774. c) include in severe disease
  775. d) be excluded
  776. The main (basic) type of treatment of diabetes mellitus type I is:
  777. a) insulin
  778. b) use of oral glucose-lowering drugs
  779. c) the use of corticosteroids
  780. d) the use of cytotoxic drugs
  781. The most commonly for the treatment of diabetes mellitus type I is used:
  782. a) biguanides
  783. b) derivatives sulphonyl-urea I generation
  784. c) derivatives sulfhonyl-urea II generation
  785. d) insulin
  786. Select the mechanisms of therapeutic action of oral hypoglycemic agents in diabetes mellitus type II:
  787. a) stimulation of β-cells of the pancreas
  788. b) increased secretion of insulin
  789. c) increase the utilization of glucose by peripheral tissues
  790. d) inhibiting the secretion of insulin
  791. In diabetes type I view characteristic skin lesions are:
  792. a) abrasions and poor healing of wounds on the skin
  793. b) a tight swelling of the skin
  794. c) "Butterfly"
  795. d) "symptom score"
  796. To defeat of the urinary organs in diabetes mellitus type II is characterized clinically symptomless:
  797. a) proteinuria
  798. b) hematuria
  799. c) cylindruria
  800. d) pyuria and bacteriuria.
  801. The most characteristic clinical sign of retinopathy in type I diabetes is:
  802. a) a syndrome of red eyes
  803. b) dry eyes
  804. c) short-sightedness
  805. d) hyperopia
  806. e) progressive decline of up to blindness
  807. An early sign of kidney disease in diabetes mellitus type I is:
  808. a) clinically asymptomatic bacteriuria and leucocyturia
  809. b) cylindruria
  810. c) hematuria
  811. d) massive proteinuria
  812. e) moderate proteinuria
  813. The main pathogenetic mechanisms of chronic autoimmune thyroiditisis:
  814. a) Iodine deficiency
  815. b) synthesis of antibodies to thyroid antigens
  816. c) fibrosis of the thyroid
  817. d) hyperthyroidism
  818. At the beginning of chronic autoimmune thyroiditis developing:
  819. a) hypertrophy of the thyroid
  820. b) atrophy of the thyroid gland
  821. c) malignancy of the thyroid gland
  822. d) thyroid abscess
  823. In the peakof chronic autoimmunethyroiditis developing:
  824. a) hypertrophy of the thyroid
  825. b) atrophy of the thyroid gland
  826. c) malignancy of the thyroid gland
  827. d) thyroid abscess
  828. Early typical clinical manifestations of chronic autoimmune thyroiditis are:
  829. a) hyperthyroidism and thyrotoxicosis
  830. b) hypothyroidism
  831. c) hypothyroid coma
  832. d) an increase in tissue density (rocky density) of the thyroid gland
  833. Later, typical clinical manifestations of chronic autoimmune thyroiditis are:
  834. a) hyperthyroidism
  835. b) hyperthyroidism
  836. c) hypothyroidism
  837. d) an increase in tissue consistency (stony consistency) of the thyroid gland
  838. The initial manifestations of chronic autoimmune thyroid is:
  839. a) an increase in the size of the thyroid gland
  840. b) reducing the size of the thyroid gland
  841. c) normal size of the thyroid gland
  842. d) an increase in tissue consistency (stony consistency) of the thyroid gland
  843. The late manifestations of chronic autoimmune thyroid is:
  844. a) an increase in the size of the thyroid gland
  845. b) reducing the size of the thyroid gland
  846. c) normal size of the thyroid gland
  847. d) an increase in tissue consistency (stony consistency) of the thyroid gland
  848. Rheumatoid arthritis - a chronic rheumatic disease characterized by:
  849. a) infection in peripheral joints
  850. b) an autoimmune inflammatory lesions of peripheral joints
  851. b) degenerative diseases of large joints
  852. d) autoimmune inflammatory joint disease of the spine
  853. Rheumatoid arthritis often suffer from:
  854. a) girls and young women aged 20-30 years
  855. b) middle-aged women aged 30-55 years
  856. c) old women and the elderly
  857. d) young men aged 20-30 years
  858. e) old men and the elderly
  859. In the modern classification of the duration of the early stages of rheumatoid arthritis:
  860. a) less than 6 months
  861. b) at least 1 year
  862. c) at least 2 years
  863. d) at least 5 years
  864. In the modern classification of the duration of late-stage rheumatoid arthritis:
  865. a) more than 6 months
  866. b) more than 1 year
  867. c) more than 2 years
  868. d) over 5 years
  869. Rheumatoid factor - is:
  870. a) an antibody to the DNA
  871. b) antibodies to the aggregated IgG
  872. c) antibodies to GP 330
  873. d) increasing the level of uric acid in the blood
  874. In rheumatoid arthritis, specific autoantibodies to pathogenesis are:
  875. a) antistreptolysin O
  876. b) antinuclear factor
  877. c) antibodies to the circulating peptide citruline
  878. d) an antibody to DNA
  879. It is characteristic of rheumatoid arthritis:
  880. a) symmetrical inflammation of more than 3 peripheral joints
  881. b) asymmetric inflammation of 2-3 large joints
  882. c) asymmetrical inflammation of the 1st large joints
  883. d) symmetrical inflammation of the sacroiliac joint
  884. In rheumatoid arthritis occurs:
  885. a) symmetric polyarthritis
  886. b) asymmetric arthritis
  887. c) an asymmetric oligoarthritis
  888. d) asymmetrical monoarthritis
  889. Rheumatoid arthritis is characterized by joint damage following character:
  890. a) the nature of the volatile
  891. b) persistent progressive nature
  892. c) unstable non-progressive in nature
  893. d) fully reversible
  894. For rheumatoid arthritis is characterized by predominant involvement of:
  895. a) the large joints
  896. b) the joints of the lower extremities
  897. c) the knee and small joints of the hands and feet
  898. d) joints of the spine
  899. e) I metatarsophalangeal joints
  900. In rheumatoid arthritis, the most commonly affected:
  901. a) knee joints
  902. b) the sacroiliac joints
  903. c) the small joints of the hands
  904. d) small joints of the feet
  905. e) I metatarsophalangeal joints
  906. In rheumatoid arthritis, a potentially reversible clinical signs of joint damage are:
  907. a) chondrite
  908. b) synovitis
  909. c) ankylosis
  910. d) achilles
  911. In rheumatoid arthritis clinical signs of irreversible joint damage are:
  912. a) chondritis
  913. b) synovitis
  914. c) ankylosis
  915. d) achillitis
  916. In the early stages of rheumatoid arthritis are the following features of a symmetric polyarthritis:
  917. a) exudative signs of potentially reversible
  918. b) irreversible exudative signs
  919. c) potentially reversible proliferative (fibrotic, sclerotic) signs
  920. d) irreversible proliferative (fibrotic, sclerotic) signs
  921. e) ankylosing
  922. In late-stage rheumatoid arthritis are the following features of a symmetric polyarthritis:
  923. a) exudative signs of potentially reversible
  924. b) irreversible exudative signs
  925. c) potentially reversible proliferative (fibrotic, sclerotic) signs
  926. d) irreversible proliferative (fibrotic, sclerotic) signs and ankylosing
  927. For the early stages of rheumatoid arthritis are characterized morning stiffness duration:
  928. a) up to 30 minutes
  929. b) from 30 minutes to 1 hour
  930. c) over 2 hours
  931. d) during the day
  932. e) from 30 sec to 1 min
  933. Late stages of rheumatoid arthritis are characterized morning stiffness duration:
  934. a) up to 30 minutes
  935. b) from 30 minutes to 1 hour
  936. c) over 2 hours, sometimes within days
  937. d) from 30 sec to 1 min
  938. In early stage of rheumatoid arthritis during lateral compression on metatarsophalangeal joints and pain:
  939. a) decreases
  940. b) decrease sharply
  941. c) disappear
  942. d) appears or increases
  943. With extra-articular rheumatoid arthritis (systemic) symptoms may be:
  944. a) only in the early stages of the disease
  945. b) only at a late stage of the disease
  946. c) in both early and late stages of the disease
  947. d) only when transformed in systemic lupus erythematosus
  948. In rheumatoid arthritis symptoms such as rheumatoid nodules, muscle inflammation, lymphadenopathy, rheumatoid vasculitis, visceritis, nervous system, eyes, and blood system, as well as fever and weight loss are:
  949. a) a complication of the disease
  950. b) a low disease activity
  951. c) the systemic manifestations of the disease
  952. d) transformation of a systemic lupus erythematosus
  953. The most frequent type of systemic manifestations of rheumatoid arthritis are:
  954. a) rheumatoid nodules
  955. b) muscle inflammation
  956. c) lymphadenopathy
  957. d) rheumatoid vasculitis
  958. e) visceritis
  959. The most frequent type of lesions of the musculoskeletal system at the early stages of rheumatoid arthritis are myalgia (sometimes myositis):
  960. a) intercostals muscles of the hand
  961. b) the muscles of the forearm
  962. c) the muscles of the shoulder girdle
  963. d) thigh muscles
  964. e) leg muscles
  965. The most frequent type of lesions of the musculoskeletal system at the late stage of rheumatoid arthritis is atrophy:
  966. a) intercostals muscles of the hand
  967. b) the muscles of the forearm
  968. c) the muscles of the shoulder girdle
  969. d) thigh muscles
  970. e) leg muscles
  971. Kidney damage in rheumatoid arthritis is manifested most often:
  972. a) latent glomerulonephritis
  973. b) nephrotic glomerulonephritis
  974. c) secondary amyloidosis of the kidneys
  975. d) pyelonephritis
  976. e) urolithiasis
  977. The most specific laboratory parameters of rheumatoid arthritis is the detection of a high level of blood:
  978. a) C-reactive protein
  979. b) uric acid
  980. c) factor and antinuclear antibodies to DNA
  981. d) rheumatoid factors and antibodies to circulating citrulline peptide
  982. What disease characterized by high levels of rheumatoid factor and antibodies to the circulating peptide citrulline:
  983. a) acute rheumatic fever
  984. b) osteoarthritis
  985. c) gout
  986. d) rheumatoid arthritis
  987. e) ankylosing spondylitis
  988. The most specific radiological sign of rheumatoid arthritis is:
  989. a) periarticular osteoporosis
  990. b) osteophytes and osteosclerosis
  991. c) joint space narrowing
  992. d) marginal bone erosion
  993. e) "symptom punch"
  994. What disease characterized by marginal bone erosion in the joints of the X-ray of joints:
  995. a) acute rheumatic fever
  996. b) osteoarthritis
  997. c) gout
  998. d) rheumatoid arthritis
  999. e) ankylosing spondylitis
  1000. The time interval when active therapy can effectively slow down the progression of joint damage (so-called "window of opportunity") for rheumatoid arthritis are as follows:
  1001. a) several hours to 2 days
  1002. b) from a few days up to 2 weeks
  1003. c) from several weeks to two months
  1004. d) from several months to 2 years
  1005. Select the "basic" drug in the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis:
  1006. a) benzylpenicillin
  1007. b) Biseptol (septran)
  1008. c) methotrexate
  1009. d) chondroitin sulfate
  1010. e) amoxicillin
  1011. The initial dose of methotrexate in the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis:
  1012. a) 10 mg daily
  1013. b) 10 mg per week
  1014. c) 10 mg per month
  1015. d) 10 mg of a year
  1016. Spa and maintenance dose of methotrexate in the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis is:
  1017. a) 15-25 mg per day
  1018. b) 15-25 mg per week
  1019. c) 15-25 mg per month
  1020. d) 15-25 mg per year
  1021. SLE is more common in:
  1022. a) boys and young men
  1023. b) girls and young women
  1024. c) older men
  1025. d) elderly women
  1026. What is the natural factor can exacerbate SLE:
  1027. a) solar radiation
  1028. b) the fog
  1029. c) magnetic storms
  1030. d) high humidity
  1031. The specific type of skin lesions in SLE is:
  1032. a) vitiligo
  1033. b) hyperpigmentation
  1034. c) periorbital edema
  1035. d) erythematous skin rashes on the face of the type "butterfly"
  1036. Photosensitivity (increased skin sensitivity to sunlight) - is a particular feature:
  1037. a) rheumatoid arthritis
  1038. b) gout
  1039. c) osteoarthritis
  1040. d) ankylosing spondylitis
  1041. e) systemic lupus erythematosus
  1042. For systemic lupus erythematosus is characterized by joint damage in the form of:
  1043. a) arthritis of large joints
  1044. b) arthrosis of large joints
  1045. c) unstable and non-progressive arthritis of small joints of the hands and feet
  1046. d) persistent and progressive arthritis of small joints of the hands and feet
  1047. For systemic lupus erythematosus most characteristic form of kidney damage is:
  1048. a) pyelonephritis
  1049. b) amyloidosis
  1050. c) hematuric version of glomerulonephritis
  1051. d) nephrotic embodiment glomerulonephritis
  1052. What is the most typical laboratory signs of systemic lupus erythematosus:
  1053. a) antibodies to DNA
  1054. b) HLAB27
  1055. c) rheumatoid factor
  1056. d) hyperuricemia
  1057. The young woman in a blood test found high levels of antibodies to DNA. What disease is characterized by:
  1058. a) rheumatoid arthritis
  1059. b) systemic lupus erythematosus
  1060. c) osteoarthritis
  1061. d) ankylosing spondylitis
  1062. e) gout
  1063. When dermatomyositis is the most specific lesion:
  1064. a) striated muscle
  1065. b) smooth muscle
  1066. c) the skin
  1067. d) the internal organs
  1068. The most specific clinical sign of dermatomyositis is:
  1069. a) myalgia
  1070. b) myasthenia gravis
  1071. c) aspiration pneumonia
  1072. d) "dermatomyositis points"
  1073. Progressive myasthenia gravis is diagnostic:
  1074. a) rheumatoid arthritis
  1075. b) Sjogren′s syndrome
  1076. c) Reiter′s disease
  1077. d) dermatomyositis
  1078. e) nodular periarthritis
  1079. The specific type of skin lesions in dermatomyositis is:
  1080. a) "Butterfly"
  1081. b) vitiligo
  1082. c) the bronze color of the skin
  1083. d) purple-violet erythema around the eyes
  1084. e) tight swelling of the skin
  1085. A typical view of clinical heart disease in dermatomyositis is:
  1086. a) coronary pain
  1087. b) hypotension
  1088. c) arterial hypertension
  1089. d) cardialgia
  1090. e) progressive heart failure
  1091. The most frequent type of lung lesions in dermatomyositis is:
  1092. a) aspiration pneumonia
  1093. b) pulmonary infarction
  1094. c) pneumonitis
  1095. d) basal pulmonary fibrosis
  1096. e) diffuse pulmonary fibrosis
  1097. A specific laboratory signs of dermatomyositis is:
  1098. a) proteinuria
  1099. b) detection of rheumatoid factor in the blood
  1100. c) elevated blood enzymes
  1101. d) hyperleukocytosis
  1102. A specific feature of dermatomyositis on electromyography is:
  1103. a) high amplitude vibrations of the muscle
  1104. b) increased muscle excitability
  1105. c) decrease in muscle excitability
  1106. d) fibrillation muscles
  1107. A specific feature of dermatomyositis muscle biopsy is:
  1108. a) necrosis of muscle fibers and the loss of striated striation
  1109. b) correct sclerosis of muscle fibers
  1110. c) maintaining muscle inflammation striated striation
  1111. d) and atrophy of muscles distophy